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Shared Assessments CTPRP Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 37 questions
Total 125 questions

Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following changes to the production environment is typically NOT subject to the change control process?

Options:

A.

Change in network

B.

Change in systems

C.

Change to administrator access

D.

Update to application

Question 2

Which factor describes the concept of criticality of a service provider relationship when determining vendor classification?

Options:

A.

Criticality is limited to only the set of vendors involved in providing disaster recovery services

B.

Criticality is determined as all high risk vendors with access to personal information

C.

Criticality is assigned to the subset of vendor relationships that pose the greatest impact due to their unavailability

D.

Criticality is described as the set of vendors with remote access or network connectivity to company systems

Question 3

Which statement BEST represents the roles and responsibilities for managing corrective actions upon completion of an onsite or virtual assessment?

Options:

A.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with internal audit prior to issuing the assessment report

B.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with the vendor prior to sharing results with the line of business

C.

All findings and need for remediation should be reviewed with the line of business for risk acceptance prior to sharing the remediation plan with the vendor

D.

All findings should be shared with the vendor as quickly as possible so that remediation steps can be taken as quickly as possible

Question 4

Which example of a response to external environmental factors is LEAST likely to be managed directly within the BCP or IT DR plan?

Options:

A.

Protocols for social media channels and PR communication

B.

Response to a natural or man-made disruption

C.

Dependency on key employee or supplier issues

D.

Response to a large scale illness or health outbreak

Question 5

When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?

Options:

A.

Full disk encryption and backup

B.

Available bandwidth and redundancy

C.

Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method

D.

Logging and monitoring

Question 6

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service

B.

Software as a Service

C.

Function a3 a Service

D.

Platform as a Service

Question 7

At which level of reporting are changes in TPRM program metrics rare and exceptional?

Options:

A.

Business unit

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk committee

D.

Board of Directors

Question 8

Information classification of personal information may trigger specific regulatory obligations. Which statement is the BEST response from a privacy perspective:

Options:

A.

Personally identifiable financial information includes only consumer report information

B.

Public personal information includes only web or online identifiers

C.

Personally identifiable information and personal data are similar in context, but may have different legal definitions based upon jurisdiction

D.

Personally Identifiable Information and Protected Healthcare Information require the exact same data protection safequards

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed

B.

Process for data destruction and disposal

C.

Software security testing

D.

Process for fixing security defects

Question 10

A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:

Options:

A.

Limitation of liability

B.

Cyber Insurance

C.

Force majeure

D.

Mutual indemnification

Question 11

You are updating program requirements due to shift in use of technologies by vendors to enable hybrid work. Which statement is LEAST likely to represent components of an Asset

Management Program?

Options:

A.

Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data

B.

Each asset should include an organizational owner who is responsible for the asset throughout its life cycle

C.

Assets should be classified based on criticality or data sensitivity

D.

Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines

Question 12

Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?

Options:

A.

Configuration

B.

Log retention

C.

Approvals

D.

Testing

Question 13

A set of principles for software development that address the top application security risks and industry web requirements is known as:

Options:

A.

Application security design standards

B.

Security testing methodology

C.

Secure code reviews

D.

Secure architecture risk analysis

Question 14

Select the risk type that is defined as: “A third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes”.

Options:

A.

Reliability risk

B.

Performance risk

C.

Competency risk

D.

Availability risk

Question 15

Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

Options:

A.

To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed

B.

To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements

C.

To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings

D.

To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results

Question 16

Which of the following is typically NOT included within the scape of an organization's network access policy?

Options:

A.

Firewall settings

B.

Unauthorized device detection

C.

Website privacy consent banners

D.

Remote access

Question 17

Minimum risk assessment standards for third party due diligence should be:

Options:

A.

Set by each business unit based on the number of vendors to be assessed

B.

Defined in the vendor/service provider contract or statement of work

C.

Established by the TPRM program based on the company’s risk tolerance and risk appetite

D.

Identified by procurement and required for all vendors and suppliers

Question 18

Which example is typically NOT included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Including any contractual or legal/regulatory requirements

B.

Prioritization of business functions and processes

C.

Identifying the criticality of applications

D.

Requiring vendor participation in testing

Question 19

All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Reviewing compliance artifacts for the presence of control attributes

B.

Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit

C.

Analyzing assessment results to identify and report risk

D.

Scoping the assessment based on identified risk factors

Question 20

Which statement is TRUE regarding the onboarding process far new hires?

Options:

A.

New employees and contractors should not be on-boarded until the results of applicant screening are approved

B.

it is not necessary to have employees, contractors, and third party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements

C.

All job roles should require employees to sign non-compete agreements

D.

New employees and contactors can opt-out of having to attend security and privacy awareness training if they hold existing certifications

Question 21

Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?

Options:

A.

Subcontractor notice and approval

B.

Indemnification and liability

C.

Breach notification

D.

Right to audit

Question 22

An outsourcer's vendor risk assessment process includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Establishing risk evaluation criteria based on company policy

B.

Developing risk-tiered due diligence standards

C.

Setting remediation timelines based on the severity level of findings

D.

Defining assessment frequency based on resource capacity

Question 23

Which of the following statements BEST represent the relationship between incident response and incident notification plans?

Options:

A.

Cybersecurity incident response programs have the same scope and objectives as privacy incident notification procedures

B.

All privacy and security incidents should be treated alike until analysis is performed to quantify the number of records impacted

C.

Security incident response management is only included in crisis communication for externally reported events

D.

A security incident may become a security breach based upon analysis and trigger the organization's incident notification or crisis communication process

Question 24

Which statement is FALSE regarding the foundational requirements of a well-defined third party risk management program?

Options:

A.

We conduct onsite or virtual assessments for all third parties

B.

We have defined senior and executive management accountabilities for oversight of our TPRM program

C.

We have established vendor risk ratings and classifications based on a tiered hierarchy

D.

We have established Management and Board-level reporting to enable risk-based decisionmaking

Question 25

Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors’ role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?

Options:

A.

The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment

B.

The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls

C.

The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report

D.

The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes

Question 26

Which statement is FALSE regarding background check requirements for vendors or service providers?

Options:

A.

Background check requirements are not applicable for vendors or service providers based outside the United States

B.

Background checks should be performed prior to employment and may be updated after employment based upon criteria in HR policies

C.

Background check requirements should be applied to employees, contract workers and temporary workers

D.

Background check requirements may differ based on level of authority, risk, or job role

Question 27

Which of the following BEST reflects the risk of a ‘shadow IT" function?

Options:

A.

“Shadow IT" functions often fail to detect unauthorized use of information assets

B.

“Shadow IT" functions often lack governance and security oversight

C.

inability to prevent "shadow IT’ functions from using unauthorized software solutions

D.

Failure to implement strong security controls because IT is executed remotely

Question 28

You are updating the inventory of regulations that impact your TPRM program during the company's annual risk assessment. Which statement provides the optimal approach to

prioritizing the regulations?

Options:

A.

identify the applicable regulations that require an extension of specific obligations to service providers

B.

Narrow the focus only on the regulations that directly apply to personal information

C.

Include the regulations that have the greater risk of triggering enforcement or fines/penalties

D.

Emphasize the federal regulations since they supersede state regulations

Question 29

Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions

B.

Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements

C.

Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice

D.

Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company’s risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced

Question 30

Which of the following actions reflects the first step in developing an emergency response plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct an assessment that includes an inventory of the types of events that have the greatest potential to trigger an emergency response plan

B.

Consider work-from-home parameters in the emergency response plan

C.

incorporate periodic crisis management team tabletop exercises to test different scenarios

D.

Use the results of continuous monitoring tools to develop the emergency response plan

Question 31

Which of the following is a positive aspect of adhering to a secure SDLC?

Options:

A.

Promotes a “check the box" compliance approach

B.

A process that defines and meets both the business requirements and the security requirements

C.

A process that forces quality code repositories management

D.

Enables the process if system code is managed in different IT silos

Question 32

Which factor is MOST important when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data?

Options:

A.

The geographic location of the vendor's outsourced datacenters since assessments are only required for international data transfers

B.

The identification of the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model in order to confirm responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider

C.

The definition of requirements for backup capabilities for power generation and redundancy in the resilience plan

D.

The contract terms for the configuration of the environment which may prevent conducting the assessment

Question 33

When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?

Options:

A.

Logging of remote access authentication attempts

B.

Limiting access by job role of business justification

C.

Monitoring device activity usage volumes

D.

Requiring application whitelisting

Question 34

Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?

Options:

A.

The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier

B.

Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control

C.

Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated

D.

All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment

Question 35

Which factor is less important when reviewing application risk for application service providers?

Options:

A.

Remote connectivity

B.

The number of software releases

C.

The functionality and type of data the application processes

D.

APl integration

Question 36

Once a vendor questionnaire is received from a vendor what is the MOST important next step when evaluating the responses?

Options:

A.

Document your analysis and provide confirmation to the business unit regarding receipt of the questionnaire

B.

Update the vender risk registry and vendor inventory with the results in order to complete the assessment

C.

Calculate the total number of findings to rate the effectiveness of the vendor response

D.

Analyze the responses to identify adverse or high priority responses to prioritize controls that should be tested

Question 37

Which statement is TRUE regarding the tools used in TPRM risk analyses?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment plans define the due diligence standards for third party assessments

B.

Risk ratings summarize the findings in vendor remediation plans

C.

Vendor inventories provide an up-to-date record of high risk relationships across an organization

D.

Risk registers are used for logging and tracking third party risks

Demo: 37 questions
Total 125 questions