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ServiceNow CIS-EM Certified Implementation Specialist - Event Management Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 34 questions
Total 115 questions
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Certified Implementation Specialist - Event Management Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When creating an alert management rule, where would you specify a workflow to resolve a given condition?

Options:

A.

From the Remediation tab

B.

From the Actions tab

C.

From the Launcher tab

D.

In the Related Links section

Question 2

Within the ServiceNow IT Operations Management solution set, which statement most accurately describes what Event Management is?

Options:

A.

The process responsible for defining, analyzing, planning, measuring, and improving all aspects of the availability of IT services

B.

The process responsible for ensuring the capacity of IT Services and IT infrastructure is able to deliver agreed upon service level targets in a cost-effective manner

C.

The process responsible for recovery action and planning through machine learning

D.

The process responsible for monitoring all abnormal occurrences throughout the IT infrastructure, allowing for normal operations, and detecting and escalating exception conditions

Question 3

What would be the primary use case for creating Javascripts in Event Management?

Options:

A.

To create a customized pull connector to retrieve events on behalf of an event source

B.

To automatically populate the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C.

To parse a nodename out of your raw event data in an event rule

D.

To run as part of a remediation workflow for IT alerts that fail to execute

Question 4

What does the Service Operations Workspace express list reduce the need for?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

Conducting root cause analysis

B.

Constantly refreshing the list of alerts

C.

Navigating through different interfaces

D.

Performing remediation actions

Question 5

What missing attribute would cause an event to have a state of Error?

Options:

A.

Metric Name

B.

Source

C.

Classification

D.

Node

E.

Severity

Question 6

During CI binding, CI matching is done using which two fields? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Message Key

B.

Additional Information

C.

Source

D.

Node

Question 7

To determine the top incidents for the CI associated with an alert, where is the best place to look?

Options:

A.

Alert Insights

B.

Incident List View

C.

CMDB Health Dashboard

D.

Event Management Overview page

Question 8

Which is the best option to reduce latency issues when receiving events?

Options:

A.

Verify bucket field in em_event table > 0

B.

Verify event_processor_job_count = 2

C.

Verify event_processor_job_count = 0

D.

Verify event_processor_enable_multi_node = 2

Question 9

MID Servers provide important functions in your ITOM Health deployment.

What does MID stand for?

Options:

A.

Management, Instrumentation, and Discovery

B.

Messaging, Integration, and Data

C.

Monitoring, Insight, and Domain

D.

Maintenance, Information, and Distribution

Question 10

Applying recommended Event Management best practice guidelines, which of the following events should generate an alert?

Options:

A.

Every event should generate an alert so you have the opportunity to resolve them all.

B.

Only events that necessitate action should generate an alert.

C.

Only the most critical events on every CI in the CMDB should generate an alert.

D.

Every event on every critical CI in the CMDB should generate an alert.

Question 11

Where are approval requests for execution of alert remediation tasks configured?

Options:

A.

In the Flow Designer remediation subflow

B.

In Service Operations Workspace

C.

In the alert management rule's approvals related list

D.

In the alert management rule's playbook

Question 12

Based on the information shown, which of the following three alerts should be processed first?

Options:

A.

The Alert Priority score 3106020.001 was calculated according to the following factors, ordered by their respective priority (2018-06-01 19:34:01 GMT) Category (Score, Weight)

1. Business services – (3.0, 1000000)

2. Severity – (1.0, 100000)

3. CI type – (60.0, 100)

4. Role – (2.0, 10)

5. Secondary – (0)

6. State – (1.0, 0.001)

B.

The Alert Priority score 4406020.001 was calculated according to the following factors, ordered by their respective priority (2018-05-31 20:04:47 GMT) Category (Score, Weight)

1. Business services – (4.0, 1000000.0)

2. Severity – (4.0, 100000.0)

3. CI type – (60.0, 100.0)

4. Role – (2.0, 10.0)

5. Secondary – (0)

6. State – (1.0, 0.001)

C.

The Alert Priority score 3306020.001 was calculated according to the following factors, ordered by their respective priority (2018-05-31 19:56:54 GMT) Category (Score, Weight)

1. Business services – (3.0, 1000000.0)

2. Severity – (3.0, 100000.0)

3. CI type – (60.0, 100.0)

4. Role – (2.0, 10.0)

5. Secondary – (0)

6. State – (1.0, 0.001)

D.

They should be processed in the order in which they were received.

Question 13

What Event Management module allows for configuration of automatic task creation?

Options:

A.

Alert management rules

B.

Task rules

C.

Event rules

D.

Alert correlation rules

Question 14

Which is not a valid method for accessing alert intelligence?

Options:

A.

In the right-click menu of an alert list, select Open in Workspace

B.

By appending/workspace to your instance URL

C.

The application navigator Alerts Console menu item

D.

The application navigator Alert Intelligence menu item

E.

Within an open alert record, click the Open in Workspace button

F.

Select the Lists tab in operator workspace

Question 15

What is one of the benefits of using alert automation in Service Operations Workspace?

Options:

A.

It offers a simplified experience for creating and managing event and alert related rules

B.

It uses back end tables separate from those in event management rules

C.

It enables centralized administration for all alert management

D.

It does not require any knowledge of the source event collection tool

Question 16

What is the default collection/polling interval applied to all event connectors?

Options:

A.

Every 120 seconds

B.

Every 5 seconds

C.

Every 40 seconds

D.

Every 60 seconds

E.

Every 10 seconds

Question 17

What would you use as a central location to explore the CMDB class hierarchy, CI table definitions, and CIs?

Options:

A.

CI Remediations

B.

CI Relation Types

C.

CI Identifiers

D.

Process to CI Type Mapping

E.

CI Class Manager

Question 18

The MID Server requires an outbound connection on which port?

Options:

A.

445

B.

161

C.

443

D.

143

Question 19

What role is required to create a Technical Service?

Options:

A.

evt_mgmt_integration

B.

evt_mgmt_user

C.

evt_mgmt_operator

D.

evt_mgmt_admin

Question 20

The ServiceNow standard and shared set of service-related definitions that enable and support true service level reporting is known as what?

Options:

A.

Service level data model

B.

Business service data model

C.

Application service data model

D.

Common service data model

Question 21

The default polling time to collect events from an event source is:

Options:

A.

5 seconds

B.

30 seconds

C.

60 seconds

D.

120 seconds

Question 22

Which the following alert promotion rule defined in your ServiceNow instance, which of the anomalies below would be automatically promoted into IT alerts on the Alert Console?

A)

B)

C)

Both anomaly A and anomaly B

D)

Neither anomaly A or anomaly B

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 23

When creating event rules, is it best practice to create:

Options:

A.

Two rules for every event

B.

As many rules as possible

C.

As few rules as possible

D.

One rule for every event

Question 24

What ServiceNow feature is an aid to rapid implementation of your Event Management and Operational Intelligence features?

Options:

A.

Deployment wizard

B.

Step-by-step guide

C.

Checklist application

D.

Guided setup

Question 25

What does Operational Intelligence proactively identify before they cause service outages?

Options:

A.

Missing CMDB data

B.

Defects

C.

Alert correlations

D.

Orphaned CIs

E.

Anomalies

Question 26

Which attribute is responsible for de-duplication?

Options:

A.

Metric_name

B.

Message_key

C.

Short_description

D.

Additional_info

Question 27

Which are recommended best practices for Event Management? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Filter out events on ServiceNow Instance for easier consolidation and aggregation.

B.

Promote all events to alerts during initial implementation until you fully understand which should be ignored.

C.

Filter out events at source rather than in the ServiceNow instance.

D.

Base-line “normal-state” events to filter out background noise.

E.

Ignore all non-critical events during initial implementation to streamline processing; add alerts over time as time and resources allow.

Question 28

Applying recommended Event Management best practice guidelines, which of the following alerts should be processed first?

Options:

A.

Alert00l0042

B.

Alert0010003

C.

Alert00l0075

D.

Alert00l0074

Question 29

In Service Operations Workspace, what tool shows relationships between configuration items and alerts with real-time updates and detailed impact paths?

Options:

A.

CMDB identification and reconciliation engine (IRE)

B.

Unified service map

C.

Dependency view map

D.

CMDB class manager

Question 30

How would you interpret the following data in the Operational Intelligence Insights Explorer?

Options:

A.

win-ces882ierw is one of your hottest Configuration Items (CIs) that is currently experiencing a high probability of anomalies and should be checked immediately

B.

win-ces882ierw is one of your hottest Configuration Items (CIs), but is currently experiencing a low probability of anomalies

C.

win-ces882ierw is one of your customized list of monitored Configuration Items (CIs) that is currently experiencing a high probability of anomalies and should be checked immediately

D.

win-ces882ierw is one of your customized list of monitored Configuration Items (CIs), but is currently experiencing a low probability of anomalies

Question 31

What are the valid states an alert can be in during its lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Open, Reopen, Flapping, Closed

B.

New, Updating, Waiting, Complete

C.

Open, Updating, Swinging, Closed

D.

Open, Warning, Flapping, Clear

Question 32

If events are not matching to alerts as you would like, what field should be changed?

Options:

A.

Resource

B.

Message Key

C.

Node

D.

Metric Name

Question 33

You have an event that needs to be bound to a non-host CI.

Which attribute needs to be removed from the Transform and Compose tab?

Options:

A.

Source Instance

B.

Metric Name

C.

Node

D.

Resource

Question 34

Modified Agent Client Collector policies do not take effect until what action is taken?

Options:

A.

Agents are restarted

B.

Agents re-run the discovery policy

C.

MID server synchronization is initiated

D.

The policy is republished

E.

The check is tested on an existing agent/host

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Demo: 34 questions
Total 115 questions
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