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Scrum PSD Professional Scrum Developer 1 (PSD I) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 48 questions
Total 163 questions

Professional Scrum Developer 1 (PSD I) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is pair programming?

Options:

A.

Managers doing performance reviews by comparing one programmer’s code to another’s

B.

Two developers writing code together, providing constant peer review

C.

Two programmers writing code separately, but always review each other’s pull requests

D.

Developer and tester work together to write and test code

Question 2

In what ways do Developers contribute to refining the Product Backlog? (choose the best three answers)

Options:

A.

They may update estimates for Product Backlog items.

B.

They do not. The Scrum Master and the Product Owner are responsible for Product Backlog refinement.

C.

They give input on technical dependencies.

D.

They do not. The Developers are only responsible for prioritizing technical work.

E.

They ask QUESTION NO:s to clarify the intent of Product Backlog items.

Question 3

In software development DRY refers to:

Options:

A.

Code with low cyclomatic complexity

B.

Code with minimal duplication

C.

Code that has not been peer reviewed (yet)

D.

Code that has been peer reviewed

Question 4

What are possible benefits from practicing Test-Driven Development? (choose the best three answers)

Options:

A.

It is a great way for Testers to contribute early in the Sprint as they can start creating all the tests from the beginning.

B.

It increases collaboration between Developers as it requires Pair Programming.

C.

It helps to identify gaps in understanding the desired behavior.

D.

It might lead to better code as refactoring is part of the Test-Driven Development cycle.

E.

It helps break down complex problems into smaller ones that are much easier to be tackled.

F.

It makes Integration Tests obsolete and by doing so saves a lot of time.

Question 5

What are two responsibilities of testers in the scrum team? (choose two)

Options:

A.

Finding bugs

B.

Tracking quality metrics

C.

All developers are responsible for quality

D.

Verifying the work of the programmers

E.

Scrum has no tester role

Question 6

The three pillars of empirical process control are:

Options:

A.

transparency

B.

planning

C.

inspection

D.

respect

E.

commitment

F.

adaptation

Question 7

Which of the following two best describe a ready product backlog item?

Options:

A.

It is a complete user story with all the necessary components

B.

It is well understood by the developers and product owner at the sprint planning

C.

It has been changed from unready to ready status in the tracking tool

D.

It has been fully described in the user requirements analysis

E.

It can most likely be done within one sprint

Question 8

Several scrum teams share the scrum master. Developers of multiple teams approach the scrum master, because they need fulltime commitment from the same technical specialist for the next sprint. What should the scrum master consider for the response to this problem? Choose the two best answers.

Options:

A.

The need for a stable velocity

B.

The benefit of the teams figuring it out theirselves

C.

The need to have all developers busy with work

D.

The ability of the scrum teams to produce integrated increments

Question 9

What is code coverage? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

The degree to which the system under test has been exercised by tests.

B.

The number of Developers that understand how the code works.

C.

An insurance policy that covers the code for defects.

D.

The percentage of code in version control included in a build.

Question 10

Developers are blocked by an impediment in the middle of the Sprint. The impediment is outside the Developer’s control. What should they do? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

Cancel the Sprint.

B.

Immediately raise the issue to the Scrum Master.

C.

Complete the work that can be done and complete the remainder during the "hardening sprint".

D.

Stop using Scrum until the impediment is resolved.

E.

Drop the Product Backlog items affected by the impediment from the Sprint Plan.

Question 11

What are two reasons to use mock objects in unit tests?

Options:

A.

The behavior of a given object can be emulated to the system under test

B.

They are machine-generated and eliminate the need to write code by hand

C.

To increase tight coupling

D.

TDD is impossible without them

E.

Isolating a particular system component for controlled testing

Question 12

Which are four attributes of a good bug report?

Options:

A.

Screenshots or pictures of the bug in action, if possible

B.

Explains some new system functionality desired

C.

Includes build or version number where bug was found

D.

Expected results and observed results

E.

Provides simple and repeatable reproduction steps

F.

Includes code for a proposed fix

Question 13

The role of the scrum master during the daily scrum is:

Options:

A.

Manage the meeting

B.

All of these

C.

Lead the discussion

D.

Ensure that the meeting takes place and that its timebox won't be exceeded

E.

Make sure all three questions of the daily scrum are answered

Question 14

What is a mock object?

Options:

A.

A mock helps you create a build script

B.

Mocks, stubs, dummies, fakes and shims are all the same

C.

A mock is a way to initialize the database for testing

D.

A test object that mimics the behavior of a dependency in the system under test

Question 15

The developers can invite experts to the sprint planning to give them advice

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 16

When should the developers create their first automated build?

Options:

A.

Just before the first check-in

B.

Just before the product is released

C.

When the product owner asks for a build

D.

Just before the end of the sprint

E.

As soon as there is code in the version control system

Question 17

What is an inappropriate activity for a developer with special QA skills?

Options:

A.

Create a plan for testing the application

B.

Identify tools and techniques to be used in testing the product

C.

Define acceptance criteria for features

D.

Delay test activities until a feature has been coded

Question 18

Scrum demands code review

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 19

While practicing Test-Driven Development, what is done after the test fails? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

Meet with the business analyst to ensure that the test is correct.

B.

Write the minimum amount of product code to satisfy the test.

C.

Run it again to make sure it really fails.

D.

Implement the required functionality.

E.

Refactor the test so the code passes.

Question 20

What does code coverage show?

Options:

A.

The ratio of the number of tests to lines of code in the system being tested

B.

The quality of unit tests being written

C.

Code being exercised by tests

D.

The absence of defects in code

E.

When a feature is done

Question 21

Why does a test written using TDD always fail?

Options:

A.

Because testers are terrible coders

B.

Because the tests are checked in before the code exists

C.

Because the product code to satisfy the test doesn’t exist yet

D.

Because the test needs to be refactored

Question 22

When is a system's architecture decided? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

It is designed along with the vision, before the first Sprint.

B.

In the beginning of the project, during Sprint 0.

C.

Before writing code.

D.

Throughout development, as understanding emerges.

Question 23

The increment must be released at the end of the sprint

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 24

Which three describe TDD?

Options:

A.

An incremental and emergent approach to software design

B.

A software development technique based on automated tests

C.

A predictable way to develop working well-organized code

D.

Creating a manual test script before writing code

E.

Having testers involved in the development process

Question 25

Upon what type of process control is scrum based?

Options:

A.

Deductive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Empirical

D.

Technical

Question 26

Based on "Sprint 7 Burn-Down Chart," would you do anything different in Sprint 8? (choose the best two answers)

Options:

A.

The Developers may forecast less overall work in Sprint 8.

B.

Stakeholders will encourage the Scrum Team to estimate better during the Sprint 8 Planning Meeting.

C.

There is nothing wrong. The Developers will present all Product Backlog items selected for Sprint 7 at the end of the Sprint.

D.

The Developers carry over incomplete Sprint Backlog items from Sprint 7 to Sprint 8 and monitor the Sprint 8 burn-down chart. As soon as deviation from trends is detected, the Developers work with the Product Owner to negotiate remaining work.

E.

The Scrum Master adds additional Developers for Sprint 8.

F.

The Developers put incomplete Product Backlog items back into the Product Backlog for re-ordering. The Product Owner may ask the Developers to complete the unfinished Product Backlog items from Sprint 7 in Sprint 8.

Question 27

How is the management external to the Scrum team involved in the daily scrum?

Options:

A.

The product owner speaks on their behalf

B.

The developers self-manage and they are the only management required at the daily scrum

C.

The scrum master speaks on their behalf

D.

The scrum master lets them know whether they need to be preset

Question 28

The CEO demands a feature from the developers during the sprint. What should the developers do?

Options:

A.

Add the item to the next sprint

B.

Add the item to the current sprint and work harder

C.

Add the item to the current sprint and leave out something that is less important

D.

Inform the product owner, so the PO can deal with the CEO

Question 29

Who creates documentation included with a working increment?

Options:

A.

Scrum requires no documentation

B.

Technical writers

C.

Scrum master

D.

Product owner

E.

Developers

Question 30

What enhances the transparency of an Increment? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

Doing all work needed to meet the Definition of Done.

B.

Updating Sprint tasks properly in the electronic tracking tool.

C.

Keeping track of and estimating all undone work to be completed in a “hardening" Sprint.

D.

Reporting Sprint progress to the stakeholders daily.

Question 31

Choose two common cross-cutting concerns in application architecture

Options:

A.

Release documentation

B.

Build automation

C.

Security

D.

Design pattern choices

E.

Scalability

Question 32

Which are two benefits of establishing naming conventions for code?

Options:

A.

To make the code more readable

B.

To make it easy to distinguish between different software products

C.

To communicate the identity of the developer that wrote the code

D.

To reduce friction in a shared codebase

E.

To ensure that orphan functions are not created

Question 33

Which output from sprint planning provides the developers with a target and overarching direction for the sprint?

Options:

A.

The sprint backlog

B.

The product goal

C.

The Sprint goal

D.

Sprint review minutes

Question 34

What relation does scrum have to development practices?

Options:

A.

Scrum requires a specific set of development practices

B.

Scrum is complemented by good development practices

C.

Scrum requires all development practices

D.

Scrum has no relationship to development practices

Question 35

Which of the following are DevOps Practices? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration / Continuous Deployment / Continuous Delivery.

B.

Blue-Green-Deployment.

C.

Hypothesis-Driven Development.

D.

Vertical Teams.

E.

Blameless Post-Mortems.

F.

All of the above.

Question 36

What should the Scrum Team do during the first Sprint? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

Analyze, describe, and document the requirements for the subsequent Sprints.

B.

Define the major product features and a release plan architecture.

C.

Make up a plan for the rest of the project.

D.

Create at least one valuable and useful Increment.

Question 37

Which of the following is true about the Definition of Done? (choose the best two answers)

Options:

A.

It defines a state when the entire Increment is releasable.

B.

It might be a subject of discussion during the Sprint Retrospective.

C.

It is synonymous with acceptance criteria.

D.

It is the sole responsibility of the Developers to define it.

E.

It can only be extended; nothing can be removed.

Question 38

Which of the following best describes Emergent Architecture? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

An approach to make decisions easier to change in the future and find the best possible point in time to make decisions.

B.

Starting development of a software product requires a clear understanding of the underlying software architecture, and Emergent Architecture describes the process of creating this final architecture.

C.

In Scrum there is no Architect-Role; therefore, architecture emerges naturally.

D.

Enterprise Architects must be involved to create the foundation of each software product.

E.

The software architecture emerges solely from decisions the Developers make from a technical perspective.

Question 39

What are three of the best ways to address non-functional requirements?

Options:

A.

Handle them during a risk mitigation phase before development

B.

Scrum is for functional, frontend development only

C.

Include them in the Product Backlog

D.

Before the release, they should be tested and validated in a hardening sprint

E.

Specific expectations can be used as acceptance criteria to specific product backlog items

F.

Important, recurring non-functional requirements can be added to the definition of done

Question 40

True or False: A high-performance Scrum Team ensures that each Increment is complete by running a Release Sprint.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 41

How long is the daily scrum?

Options:

A.

The scrum master ends the meeting when it is done

B.

This is for the developers to decide

C.

At most 15 minutes

D.

At least 15 minutes

E.

Around 15 minutes, but more if necessary

Question 42

What is the step to take in TDD after the tests have failed?

Options:

A.

Meet with the team to see why it fails

B.

Change the test in a way that is passes

C.

Run it again to verify it fails.

D.

Write the code to satisfy the test

Question 43

The practice of decomposing a requirement into failing tests is called:

Options:

A.

Behavior driven development

B.

Scrum testing

C.

Regression testing

D.

Acceptance test driven development

Question 44

True or False: A Sprint can be canceled before the timebox ends.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 45

When is it most appropriate for developers to change the Definition of Done

Options:

A.

During the sprint planning when they can’t fit enough into the sprint

B.

Prior to starting a new sprint

C.

In the retrospective when it turns out they can improve quality

D.

Prior to starting a new project

Question 46

When are individuals with testing and quality expertise included in the software development effort? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

From the beginning and throughout all Sprints.

B.

When the implementation of each feature is complete.

C.

After Sprint Review.

D.

When the product is feature complete.

Question 47

When might a sprint be cancelled?

Options:

A.

When the developers feel they aren't ready

B.

When the project manager decides this.

C.

Never, the sprint must always be finished.

D.

When the sprint goal becomes obsolete

Question 48

When does a Sprint conclude? (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

When all the tasks are completed by the Developers.

B.

When the Sprint Retrospective is complete.

C.

When all Product Backlog items meet their Definition of Done.

D.

When the Product Owner decides enough has been delivered to meet the Sprint Goal.

Demo: 48 questions
Total 163 questions