PTCB PTCE Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Exam Practice Test

Enteric-coated (EC) tabletsare designed todelay drug release until they reach the intestine, preventing stomach irritation and degradation by gastric acid. The coatingresists stomach acidbut dissolves in thehigher pH environment of the intestines.

Aspirin EC(prevents stomach irritation)

Pantoprazole EC(proton pump inhibitor)

Diclofenac EC(NSAID)

A. Buffered→ Incorrect; buffered formulationsneutralize stomach acidbut do not delay release until the intestines.

C. Controlled release→ Incorrect; controlled-release formulationsgradually release medicationover time but are not specifically designed tobypass the stomach.

D. Buccal→ Incorrect; buccal tablets dissolve in thecheek mucosa, bypassing the digestive system entirely.

Examples of Enteric-Coated Medications:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Formulation Guidelines

USP <795> Drug Release & Absorption Standards

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms & Drug Release Mechanisms)

AZ-Pakrefers to theAzithromycin 5-day therapy pack, which is commonly prescribed forbacterial infectionssuch as respiratory infections. The standard dosing regimen follows a"loading dose" strategyto quickly reach effective drug levels in the body:

Day 1:Taketwo tablets (500 mg total).

Days 2-5:Takeone tablet (250 mg) daily.

This regimen helps achieverapid therapeutic concentrationswhile maintaining effectiveness over five days.

A. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days→ Incorrect; aloading dose (2 tablets on Day 1)is required for proper drug efficacy.

B. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 5 days→ Incorrect; the Z-Pak is a5-day regimen, not 6 days.

D. 3 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO every other day for 6 days→ Incorrect; this isnot a standard dosing regimenfor azithromycin.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Azithromycin (Z-Pak)

Lexicomp Drug Guide – Azithromycin Dosing

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology – Infectious Disease Medications)

Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medications are drugs that areeasily confused due to similar spelling or pronunciation, which increases the risk of medication errors.

Citalopram(Celexa) →Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for depression

Celecoxib(Celebrex) →Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation

Why Are Citalopram and Celecoxib Considered LASA?Both drugs sharesimilar spelling and pronunciation, increasing the chance of errors inprescribing, dispensing, and administration.

Example of potential errors: A patient withdepressionmay mistakenly receiveCelecoxib (NSAID)instead ofCitalopram (antidepressant), leading to untreated depression and unnecessary NSAID use.

A. Lisinopril and Metoprolol❌→Different drug classes, butnot commonly confused.

Lisinopril(ACE inhibitor for blood pressure)

Metoprolol(Beta-blocker for blood pressure and heart conditions)

C. Acebutolol and Acetazolamide❌→Although their names look similar, they haveless common confusion in clinical practice.

Acebutolol(Beta-blocker)

Acetazolamide(Diuretic for glaucoma, altitude sickness)

D. Naproxen and Misoprostol❌→These are oftenprescribed togetherbut arenot confused with each other.

Naproxen(NSAID for pain)

Misoprostol(Used to protect the stomach from NSAID-induced ulcers)

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) LASA List– ConfirmsCitalopram and Celecoxibas common look-alike/sound-alike drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers error prevention strategies, including LASA medications.

FDA Medication Error Prevention Guidelines– Recommends usingTall Man Lettering(e.g.,CeleXib vs. CitaloPram) to differentiate LASA drugs.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)classifiesInsulin U-500as ahigh-alert medication in acute care settingsbecause it isfive times more concentratedthan standardU-100 insulin. Errors in dosing or administration can result insevere hypoglycemiaorhyperglycemia, leading to life-threatening consequences.

A. Normal saline solution→ Incorrect;0.9% sodium chloride (NS)isnot a high-alert medication, as it is a commonly used IV fluid with a wide safety margin.

B. Transdermal lidocaine→ Incorrect; although lidocaine is alocal anesthetic, its transdermal form isnot considered high-alert.

C. Dextrose 5% solution (D5W)→ Incorrect; while used inIV therapy,D5Wisnot classified as high-alertin acute care settings.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

ISMP List of High-Alert Medications in Acute Care Settings (2023 Update)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & High-Alert Medications)

USP <800> Handling of High-Alert Medications

According toCDC Hand Hygiene Guidelines, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands withsoap and waterinstead of alcohol-based hand sanitizer when:

Hands are visibly dirty→ Alcohol-based sanitizers are ineffective against certain contaminants like dirt, grease, and some bacteria.

Before eating→ Prevents ingestion of harmful pathogens.

After using the restroom→ Soap and water are required to remove potential fecal contamination.

A. They have time, before eating, and after eating❌→Incorrect

Handwashing ismandatorywhen hands are dirty or after using the restroom, not just when there's time.

B. Their hands are visibly clean, after eating, and before each patient❌→Incorrect

Washing isnot required if hands appear clean—sanitizer is acceptable in most situations except when visibly soiled.

C. They have finished filling prescriptions, before eating, and after each patient❌→Incorrect

Hand hygiene is important, but hand sanitizer is typically used between patients unless hands are visibly dirty.

CDC Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings– Recommendssoap and waterfor visibly soiled hands and after restroom use.

USP <797> Guidelines for Aseptic Technique– Emphasizes proper handwashing for sterile compounding.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers infection control and hand hygiene protocols.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

To determine theweight/weight (w/w) percentage strength, use the formula:

\text{w/w % strength} = \left( \frac{\text{Mass of Active Ingredient (g)}}{\text{Total Mass of Final Product (g)}} \right) \times 100

Given:

Mass of zinc oxide (active ingredient) = 4.5 g

Total mass of final ointment = 30 g

\text{w/w % strength} = \left( \frac{4.5}{30} \right) \times 100 =0.15×100= 0.15 \times 100=0.15×100 =15%= 15\%=15%

(A) 0.25%❌Incorrect – This is too low.

(B) 10%❌Incorrect – This would be true if 3 g of zinc oxide were used in 30 g total.

(C) 15%✅Correct – The calculation confirms this answer.

(D) 17.5%❌Incorrect – This would be true if 5.25 g of zinc oxide were used in 30 g total.

Pharmaceutical Calculations, 15th Edition– Howard C. Ansel

The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Chapter <795>– Compounding Non-Sterile Preparations

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Pharmaceutical Calculations

Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Phenobarbital is abarbiturateused forseizure control, sedation, and epilepsy management. It is commercially available in both:

Oral tablet form(commonly used for long-term seizure control).

Injectable solution form(used in hospital settings for status epilepticus and acute seizure episodes).

B. Paroxetine❌→Available only as oral tablets and oral suspension.

C. Pioglitazone❌→Available only as oral tablets (for diabetes management).

D. Pramipexole❌→Available only as oral tablets (for Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome).

FDA Drug Labeling Database– ListsPhenobarbital as available in oral and injection forms.

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Drug Database– Confirmsinjectable and oral availability of Phenobarbital.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers medication dosage forms and routes of administration.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Meclizine (Bonine, Dramamine Less Drowsy)is anover-the-counter (OTC) antihistamineused to treatmotion sickness and vertigo. It works by blockinghistamine (H1) receptorsin thevestibular system, reducing nausea and dizziness associated with motion sickness.

B. Olanzapine→ Incorrect; olanzapine is anatypical antipsychoticused forschizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not motion sickness.

C. Promethazine→ Incorrect; promethazine is anantihistaminethat treatsnausea and motion sickness, but it isonly available by prescription (Rx).

D. Scopolamine→ Incorrect; scopolamine is aprescription (Rx) medicationintransdermal patch formused formotion sickness prevention.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Meclizine (OTC Drug Labeling)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (OTC Medications & Indications)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Meclizine, Promethazine, and Scopolamine

According tofederal law,a reverse distributor must issue a DEA Form 222 (or electronic equivalent) when a pharmacy requests the destruction of a Schedule II controlled substance.

Reverse distributorshandle the return and disposal ofexpired, damaged, or unusable controlled substances.

DEA Form 222 (or CSOS, the electronic equivalent) is required for Schedule II drugs.

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (e.g., Norco, Vicodin)is aSchedule II controlled substance, requiringDEA Form 222for reverse distribution.

A. Acetaminophen with codeine❌→Schedule III

Does not require DEA Form 222; instead, DEA Form 41 is used for disposal.

C. Promethazine with codeine❌→Schedule V

Lower abuse potential; does not require DEA Form 222.

D. Pseudoephedrine with ibuprofen❌→Not a controlled substance

Pseudoephedrine is regulated under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), not the DEA controlled substance schedules.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA)– Confirms thatSchedule II drugs require DEA Form 222 for reverse distribution.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers controlled substances and reverse distribution requirements.

DEA Diversion Control Division Guidelines– Listshydrocodone as a Schedule II drug requiring Form 222 for disposal.

Understanding DEA Form 222 and Reverse Distribution:Why is Hydrocodone with Acetaminophen the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

A table with text and numbers Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Linaclotide (brand name: Linzess)must be dispensed in its original containerbecause:

It is highly moisture-sensitive, and removing it from its original container may lead to degradation.

The manufacturer provides a desiccantin the original packaging toprotect against humidity.

A. Furosemide❌→Does not require original container.

While furosemide tablets should be stored properly,they do not require dispensing in the original container.

C. Valsartan❌→Does not require original container.

Valsartan tablets arestable outside the original container.

D. Sertraline❌→Does not require original container.

Sertraline (Zoloft)can be repackagedwithout stability issues.

FDA Linzess Storage Guidelines– States that Linzessmust be stored in its original container with desiccant.

USP <797> & <800> Guidelines– Cover proper storage and handling of moisture-sensitive drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Includes special drug storage requirements.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Thevaricella (chickenpox) vaccine(brand nameVarivax) is alive attenuated virus vaccinethat requiresfreezingto maintain stability.

TheCDC and manufacturers (Merck) require that Varicella vaccine be stored in a freezer at:

Temperature range: -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)

Acceptable range:-20°C to -10°C (-4°F to 14°F)

Do NOT store in the refrigerator–Refrigeration deactivates the live virus, making the vaccine ineffective.

Store in a stand-alone freezer(not in a refrigerator/freezer combo) to ensure temperature stability.

B. In the refrigerator (2°C to 8°C/36°F to 46°F)❌→Incorrect.

Refrigerationcompromises the vaccine’s potency, leading to inactivation of the live virus.

C. At room temperature (15°C to 30°C/59°F to 86°F)❌→Incorrect.

Room temperature storage causes rapid degradation of the live virus, rendering the vaccine ineffective.

D. In a warmer (30°C to 40°C/86°F to 104°F)❌→Incorrect & Unsafe.

Thisdestroysthe vaccine and makes it completely ineffective.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States that varicella vaccinesmust be stored in the freezer at -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F).

Manufacturer (Merck) Guidelines for Varivax– Specifies strict freezer storage requirements.

USP <797> & USP <800> Guidelines– Discuss vaccine stability and proper storage conditions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers vaccine storage and handling protocols.

Proper Long-Term Storage Conditions for Varicella VaccineWhy Not the Other Options?Key References:

Ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibioticthat chelates (binds) withdivalent and trivalent cationssuch ascalciumfound in milk. This interaction forms aninsoluble complex, significantly reducing ciprofloxacin’s absorption in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, leading to decreased bioavailability and reduced therapeutic effect.

B. Distribution→ Incorrect; milk does not directly impact the distribution of ciprofloxacin in the bloodstream.

C. Metabolism→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is primarily metabolized in the liver, and milk does not inhibit its enzymatic breakdown.

D. Excretion→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is mainly excreted by the kidneys, and milk does not significantly impact this process.

Other Answer Choices Explained:Pharmacist’s Recommendation:Patients should take ciprofloxacinat least 2 hours before or 6 hours afterconsuming dairy products to avoid reduced drug absorption.

References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics)

Lexicomp Drug Interactions Database

FDA Ciprofloxacin Drug Label & Administration Guidelines

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

According toUSP <800>andOSHA guidelines, exposure control forhazardous drugs (HDs)must begin as soon as the drugenters the facilityto ensure proper handling, storage, and administration safety. This includes:

Receiving:

Hazardous drugs must beunpacked in a designated areathat isseparate from regular medications.

They shouldnot be opened in sterile or positive-pressure areasto prevent contamination.

Storage:

HDs must be stored in anegative-pressure room with proper ventilation.

They must be placed indesignated binsto reduce exposure risks.

Handling and Compounding:

Usepersonal protective equipment (PPE)such as gloves, gowns, and masks when handling hazardous drugs.

Use abiological safety cabinet (BSC) or compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)when preparing hazardous drugs.

A. Is dispensed→ Incorrect;control measures must start earlier, before dispensing.

C. Is compounded→ Incorrect; safety measures beginbefore compounding, when the drug arrives at the pharmacy.

D. Is placed on the pharmacy shelf→ Incorrect;exposure control measuresbegin before storage, duringreceiving and handling.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling Guidelines

OSHA Hazardous Drug Safety Standards

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) Hazardous Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)is a unique 10- or 11-digit number assigned to each drug product in the U.S.Understanding how NDC numbers are structuredis key to answering this question correctly.

The NDC format is as follows:XXXXX-YYYY-ZZ

First segment (XXXXX)→Labeler (Manufacturer or Distributor)

Second segment (YYYY)→Product Code (Specific Drug, Strength, and Formulation)

Third segment (ZZ)→Package Size (Quantity in the Package)

How to Find the Correct Answer?The given NDC:76439-103-10

76439= Manufacturer/Labeler Code

103= Product Code (Specific Drug & Strength)

10= Package Size

To matchthe same medication, theManufacturer (76439) and Product Code (103) must remain the same. Only thepackage size (last segment) can change.

A. 76439-208-10❌→Incorrect

Product Code (208) does not match (103).

B. 76439-103-50✅→Correct

Same manufacturer (76439) and same drug (103), but different package size (50 instead of 10).

C. 74693-103-10❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693 instead of 76439).

D. 74693-206-50❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693) and different product code (206).

FDA NDC Directory– Provides details on NDC structure and product identification.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers NDC interpretation and drug identification.

Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)– Reinforces correct medication identification using NDC.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:Key References:

According tofederal law(Drug Enforcement Administration, DEA21 CFR § 1306.25), the transfer of aneligibleSchedule III, IV, or V controlled substance prescriptionmust occur directly between two licensed pharmacists.

Pharmacists Only:Transfers of controlled substance prescriptions canonlybe completed betweentwo licensed pharmacists.

Eligible Schedule Drugs:OnlySchedule III, IV, and Vprescriptions withremaining refillsmay be transferred.Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred.

Transfer Limitations:

Prescriptions may be transferredonly onceunless pharmacies share areal-time, electronic prescription database(e.g., chain pharmacies). In this case, refills can be transferred multiple times within allowed limits.

Transfer Documentation:The transferring pharmacist must:

Write"VOID"on the original prescription.

Record thereceiving pharmacy’sname, address, DEA number, and pharmacist’s name.

Record thedate of transferand their own name.

Receiving Pharmacist Responsibilities:

Write"Transfer"on the prescription.

Record all information from the original prescription, includingdate of issuance, original refills, refills remaining, and DEA information of the transferring pharmacy.

A. Two licensed pharmacy technicians.→ Incorrect. Pharmacy technicians are not authorized to transfer controlled substance prescriptions.

B. A licensed pharmacy technician and a licensed pharmacist.→ Incorrect. A pharmacist mustboth send and receivethe transferred prescription.

C. A licensed pharmacist and a licensed nurse.→ Incorrect. Nurses do not have the authority to receive transferred prescriptions.

DEA Pharmacist’s Manual – Prescription Transfers (21 CFR § 1306.25).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Controlled Substance Regulations.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Guidelines on Controlled Substance Transfers.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Prescription Transfers.

Key DEA Rules on Controlled Substance Prescription Transfers:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Incompatibility in a nonsterile compound can be identified through various physical, chemical, and therapeutic changes.An unexpected change in odoris a key indicator of chemical instability, contamination, or degradation of a compounded preparation. Some ingredients may break down into volatile compounds, leading to noticeable odor changes.

A. A clear solution→ Incorrect; clarity alone does not indicate incompatibility.Some solutions may be clear but still chemically unstable.

B. The use of a pH buffer system→ Incorrect; buffer systems are used to maintain pH stability and prevent incompatibility rather than indicate it.

D. Suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container→ Incorrect; suspensions naturally settle and require shaking before use.This is not necessarily a sign of incompatibility.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for Immunization:https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/index.html

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS): https://vaers.hhs.gov/

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines: https://www.immunize.org/technical-support/administering-vaccines/

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations: https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/immunization-safety

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

To calculate how muchamoxicillin suspensionwill be used in the first5 days, we follow these steps:

Amoxicillin concentration:250 mg per5 mL

Dosage:1 tsp (5 mL) three times daily (tid)

Duration:First5 days

Step 1: Identify Given InformationStep 2: Calculate Total Daily Volume5 mL×3=15 mL per day5 \text{ mL} \times 3 = 15 \text{ mL per day}5 mL×3=15 mL per day

Step 3: Multiply by 5 Days15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL15 \text{ mL/day} \times 5 \text{ days} = 75 \text{ mL}15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL

Thus, the patient will use75 mLof medication in the first5 days.

A. 25 mL→ Incorrect; this would be correct if taken onlyonce dailyinstead ofthree times daily.

B. 50 mL→ Incorrect; this is the correct amount for3.3 days, not 5 days.

D. 150 mL→ Incorrect; this is thefull 10-day course, not just the first 5 days.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Dosage & Volume Calculations)

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding Guidelines

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Amoxicillin Suspension

Cefdinir is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections, including otitis media (middle ear infection) in children. It is available in both capsule and suspension forms. However, cefdinir suspension is supplied in different concentrations, typically125 mg/5 mLand250 mg/5 mL.

The prescription provided specifies"Cefdinir suspension 5 mL PO q12h x 10 days", but it does not mention the concentration (strength) of the suspension. Without this crucial information, the pharmacy cannot accurately determine the total dosage the patient will receive. Different strengths would result in significantly different amounts of cefdinir per dose.

For example:

If the prescriber intended125 mg/5 mL, then the patient would receive125 mg per dose (250 mg daily).

If the prescriber intended250 mg/5 mL, then the patient would receive250 mg per dose (500 mg daily).

This discrepancy could lead tounderdosing or overdosing, making it essential for the pharmacy to contact the prescriber to confirm the correct concentration before dispensing.

A. Cefdinir is not available as a suspension.→ Incorrect. Cefdinir is available inoral suspensionform, typically in 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL concentrations.

C. Cefdinir suspension is not indicated for otitis media.→ Incorrect. Cefdinir is FDA-approved for the treatment of otitis media in pediatric patients.

D. Cefdinir suspension was prescribed for a child old enough to swallow capsules.→ Incorrect. While some 8-year-old children may be able to swallow capsules, many pediatric patients prefer liquid formulations, and prescribers often choose suspensions for better compliance.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Entry and Fill Process(Ensuring accuracy of prescriptions, including strength and formulation).

FDA Drug Label for Cefdinir– Indicates available strengths and dosing requirements.

Lexicomp Drug Information for Cefdinir– Lists the recommended pediatric dosages and available suspension concentrations.

Pharmacology Textbooks (e.g., "Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice")– Reinforce the importance of verifying missing prescription details before dispensing.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Linagliptin is thegeneric name for Tradjenta, a medication used to treattype 2 diabetes mellitus.

Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor (Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor).

Works byincreasing incretin levels, which boost insulin secretion and reduce glucagon levels.

Used tolower blood glucose levelsin patients with type 2 diabetes.

(A) Forteo❌Incorrect – Forteo (teriparatide) is for osteoporosis.

(B) Januvia❌Incorrect – Januvia (sitagliptin) is another DPP-4 inhibitor but not the same as Tradjenta.

(C) Tradjenta✅Correct – The brand name for linagliptin.

(D) Xarelto❌Incorrect – Xarelto (rivaroxaban) is an anticoagulant.

Tradjenta Prescribing Information (FDA):https://www.tradjenta.com

American Diabetes Association (ADA) – Pharmacologic Approaches to Diabetes Management:https://diabetesjournals.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Brand & Generic Name Drug Recognition

Drug Classification & Mechanism:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

To determine the required volume in milliliters (mL) to administer 120 mg of furosemide using a stock concentration of 40 mg/2 mL, follow these steps:

Ordered dose =120 mg

Stock concentration =40 mg per 2 mL

Step 1: Identify Given ValuesStep 2: Set Up a ProportionUse the formula:

Volume required (mL)=(Ordered dose (mg)Stock concentration (mg/mL))\text{Volume required (mL)} = \left( \frac{\text{Ordered dose (mg)}}{\text{Stock concentration (mg/mL)}} \right)Volume required (mL)=(Stock concentration (mg/mL)Ordered dose (mg)​)

First, determine the concentration inmg per mL:

40 mg2 mL=20 mg/mL\frac{40 \text{ mg}}{2 \text{ mL}} = 20 \text{ mg/mL}2 mL40 mg​=20 mg/mL

Now, calculate the required volume:

120 mg20 mg/mL=6 mL\frac{120 \text{ mg}}{20 \text{ mg/mL}} = 6 \text{ mL}20 mg/mL120 mg​=6 mL

Thus, the correct answer is6 mL.

Final Answer: C. 6 mLPharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Order Interpretation & Dosage Calculations)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

American Pharmacists Association (APhA) Pharmacy Technician Guide

To determine the required volume of U-100 insulin to administer a20-unitdose ofNPH insulin, we use the concentration definition:

U-100 insulinmeans100 units per 1 ml

We need20 units

Using the formula:

Volume (ml)=Dose (units)Concentration (units/ml)\text{Volume (ml)} = \frac{\text{Dose (units)}}{\text{Concentration (units/ml)}}Volume (ml)=Concentration (units/ml)Dose (units)​Volume=20 units100 units/ml=0.2 ml\text{Volume} = \frac{20 \text{ units}}{100 \text{ units/ml}} = 0.2 \text{ ml}Volume=100 units/ml20 units​=0.2 ml

Thus, the correct answer is0.2 ml.

A. 0.02 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to only 2 units.

B. 1 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to 100 units, far exceeding the prescribed dose.

D. 2 ml→ Incorrect; this would correspond to 200 units, which is incorrect.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations)

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Sterile Preparations

American Pharmacists Association (APhA) Pharmacy Technician Certification Review

Lisinopril is anangiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, commonly used forhypertension (high blood pressure)andheart failure. A well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors is apersistent dry, hacking cough.

The cough is caused bybradykinin accumulation, which occurs due to ACE inhibition.

This coughdoes not respond to cough suppressantsand can be bothersome for patients.

If the cough is severe, thepharmacist may recommend switching to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) such as losartan, which does not cause this side effect.

B. Purchase fexofenadine for seasonal allergies❌→ No significant interaction between lisinopril and fexofenadine.

C. Mention that they have lowered their cholesterol❌→ Cholesterol levels do not affect lisinopril’s mechanism of action.

D. Report that their blood pressure has been normal lately❌→ This is expected with effective treatment and does not require pharmacist intervention unless the patient wants to discontinue the medication.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers drug interactions, side effects, and patient counseling.

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines– Lists ACE inhibitor side effects, including dry cough.

FDA Lisinopril Medication Guide– Mentions dry cough as a common adverse effect requiring pharmacist consultation.

Why is the Cough Significant?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking Protocols:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians: