PRMIA 8006 Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition Exam Practice Test

Short calls and short puts have negative gamma, ie their delta increases at a decreasing rate as the price of the underlying change. Likewise, remember that long calls and long puts have positive gamma.

A zero coupon bond has a Macaulay duration equal to its maturity, ie in this case 5 years. We can calculate modified duration from Macaulay duration by using the following relationship:

Modified duration = Macaulay duration/(1 + y) where y is the yield.

Therefore the correct answer is 5 / (1.05) = 4.76.

Or intuitively, all the other answers appear clearly incorrect: 5 and 5.25 are too high, and 4 is too low. Therefore the only reasonable choice is 4.76.

The efficient frontier is plotted on a graph with portfolio return (mean) as the y-axis and portfolio volatility, or standard deviation, on the x-axis. For a given level of volatility, it identifies the portfolio with the maximum return. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

If a reading is taken from the y-axis (ie returns) by dropping a perpendicular line on to the efficient frontier, we can get the minimum risk portfolio for the given level of returns. So the efficient frontier can be used to identify either the highest return per unit of volatility, or the lowest volatility given a desired level of returns. The efficient frontier does not describe the market portfolio, though the market portfolio may be one of the many points on the efficient frontier. Thus the other choices are incorrect.

The most loss the fund manager can bear without facing a margin call is the loss that will make his margin balance account no lower than $4,000. This means he can have a loss of upto $1,000 before a margin call is triggered, implying that prices can fall by $10 per ounce (=$1,000/100 ounces per contract) without triggering a margin call. The margin call will be to top the margin up to the $5,000 initial margin.

An increase in coupon brings the 'average' cash flows closer, thereby decreasing duration. The higher the coupon, the lower the duration.

An increase in yield discounts the cash flows that are further away more than it does the closer cash flows, so an increase in yield decreases duration.

An increase in coupon frequency brings the bond's cash flows closer, thereby decreasing duration. Decreasing the coupon frequency has the opposite effect.

An increase in maturity pushes the payments further out, thereby increasing duration.

Explanation:

The return on an asset is a function of the covariance of the asset's return to the returns of the market portfolio. They do not depend upon the standard deviation of the asset itself. Therefore Choice 'b' is correct and Choice 'c' is incorrect.

The expected returns on an asset are equal to the risk free rate plus the beta times the market risk premium, therefore Choice 'a' is correct.

Portfolios on the efficient frontier will all have a different Sharpe ratio, which is the ratio of excess returns to portfolio volatility.

Choice 'c' is the correct answer (note that the question is asking for an identification of the INCORRECT statement).

There are two ways to think about this question: First, because the asset manager thinks that interest rates are going to decline, his profit will be maximized if he buys the bond with the greatest duration. The zero coupon bond has the greatest duration among the alternatives listed. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The second way to look at this question is to consider what is called 'reinvestment risk'. Yields to maturity calculations have an implicit assumption that any cash flows received prior to maturity are investible at the ytm rate. Thus, an yield to maturity calculation for a coupon bearing bond assumes that coupon payments get invested at the same rate as the calculated ytm from the time they are received till the time the bond matures. In an environment where interest rates fall, this assumption will not hold true. Reinvestment risk is the risk that coupons will not be able to earn the ytm that the bond was brought at - and the investor will be at a loss to the extent the money does not earn the ytm rate till the end of the investment. One way to reduce reinvestment risk is to minimize coupon receipts so the money stays invested as part of the bond, and the zero coupon bond helps to do exactly that.

A utility function is graphed with utility on the y-axis and the variable driving utility (generally wealth) along the x-axis.

A concave utility function, ie a function with a downward sloping curve, indicates risk aversion. A convex utility function indicates a risk seeking attitude and a straight line (ie no curvature) indicates a risk neutral attitude.

From the put-call parity, we know that Call - Put = Stock - Bank deposit. Since the bank deposit has a zero delta, and the delta of the Stock itself is 1, we get the relationship Delta of Call - Delta of Put = 1. Therefore, if the delta of a call option is 0.3, the delta of the corresponding put option is 0.3 - 1 = -0.7

Choice 'd' represents the mean-variance function to be maximized for selecting between mutually exclusive gambles. The other choices are incorrect.

(The mean-variance criterion is a fairly complex subject, and this question is only intended to make sure that you know, and can identify the function that is being maximized. A complete explanation/derivation of the mean-variance criterion, that links together expected returns, volatility and the risk tolerance of the investor to arrive at the efficient frontier is beyond the scope of the PRM syllabus.)

Open interest refers to the number of outstanding contracts, which is the same as the number of long positions or short positions held by market participants. Note that since for every long futures contract position held there is a seller who holds the short side, the open interest that is long is identical to the open interest that is short. (This is unlike the spot market where one could have long positions without anyone else needing to be symmetrically short).

The total number of contracts traded refers to traded volumes, and not open interest. Other choices are irrelevant in the context.

A utility function is graphed with utility on the y-axis and the variable driving utility (generally wealth) along the x-axis.

A concave utility function, ie a function with a downward sloping curve, indicates risk aversion. A convex utility function indicates a risk seeking attitude and a straight line (ie no curvature) indicates a risk neutral attitude.

Eurodollar deposits refer to US dollar denominated deposits outside the US, for example in a banking center such as London, and held by a non-US bank or a foreign branch of a US bank. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

When forward prices are greater than the spot prices, the market is said to be in contango. When forward prices are lower than spot prices, the market is said to be backwarded. A short squeeze may contribute to backwardation as shorts try to buy in the spot market to cover their short positions. Similarly, expectations of oversupply in the future, for example due to a bumper harvest may create situations where the forward prices fall below spot prices. Convenience yield is the benefit from having access to the commodity - and if the convenience yield is very high, for example in a market where manufacturers must never run out of a particular raw material, then these can switch the costs of carry (which include interest and storage costs, less convenience yields) to being negative.

Since all these factors can contribute to backwardation in the market, Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The BSM formula assumes that prices are lognormally distributed. Therefore Choice 'b' does not represent a valid assumption underlying Black Scholes. All other choices represent valid assumptions.

Selling July corn futures would be the cheapest and most appropriate risk management strategy for this corn farmer trying to hedge his risk against falling prices. When June comes, he can close out the futures contracts and any loss or gain on the futures contract would be approximately equal to the change in the spot price of corn from January to June.

Buying corn futures is a bad idea because that would require the farmer to buy corn, which would only add to his expected stock of corn expected from the harvest. The same applies to buying a call option on corn. In the same way, selling a put option would be inappropriate because the buyer of the this put would have the right to sell corn to the farmer at the exercise price, which is not what we want. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

The forward price for a commodity is nothing but the spot price plus carrying costs till the maturity date of the forward contract. Any increase in carrying costs therefore has the effect of increasing the forward price. Note that carrying costs include interest cost in respect of funding the position, costs of storage, less any convenience yield.

Increase in the carrying costs will not affect the spot prices.

A rise in interest rates will cause fixed rate bond prices to fall. It will not affect the floating rate notes as their rates are going to float with the changes in interest rates. Inflation linked bonds will only be affected by changes in real interest rates, and even in a situation where the rise in interest rates is happening due to an increase in the real rates, a long position would hurt. As interest rates rise, the coupon payable on the inverse floater would fall, hurting a long position.

Of the given alternatives, the only position that would benefit from a rise in interest rates is the short position in fixed rate bonds. Hence Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Macaulay duration is the weighted average of the present value of payments received on a bond, weighted by the year in which the payments are received. If the yield curve changes shape, it will change the present values of the coupons and therefore also the Macaulay duration. Statement I is therefore not correct. However, if the bond were to be a zero-coupon bond, changes in the curve will not affect its duration so long as the interest rate at maturity stays constant.

Modified duration = Macaulay Duration/(1 + rate/compounding frequency). Therefore modified duration will change if the compounding frequency changes, assuming the nominal rate of interest for the coupons are identical. Therefore statement II is correct.When rates are expressed as continuously compounded rates, modified duration and Macaulay duration will be identical. This intuitively follows from the formula for modified duration: Modified duration = Macaulay Duration/(1 + rate/compounding frequency). For continuously compounded rates, the compounding frequency approaches infinity, so the denominator approaches 1, leaving modified duration equal to the Macaulay duration. Therefore statement III is correct.

Convexity is higher for a bond that has its payments spread out compared to a bond that has its payments concentrated at a single point in time. For a bond with a higher coupon, the higher coupons have the effect of spreading the present value of the bond over a longer period, when compared to a bond with lower coupons where the payment is comparatively more concentrated at the maturity. Therefore Convexity is higher for a bond with a lower coupon when compared to a similar bond with a higher coupon. Statement IV is not correct.

Standard deviation of this portfolio can be calculated as SQRT(4000^2*20%^2 + 6000^2*25%^2 + 2*0.6*4000*6000*20%*25%), which is equal to $2,081. Choice 'a' is the correct answer. The other answers are incorrect.

From the put-call parity, we know that Call - Put = Stock - Bank deposit. Since the bank deposit has a zero Gamma, and the Gamma of the Stock itself is also 0, we get the relationship Gamma of Call - Gamma of Put = 0. Therefore, if the Gamma of a call option is 0.08, the Gamma of the corresponding put option is also 0.08.

An out of the money convertible security behaves just like a regular debt security as the option is near worthless. Therefore it is affected by changes in interest rates and the credit risk of the issuer, and unaffected by changes in the prices or volatility of the issuer's shares (the underlying).

Each of the choices describes various scenarios related to the issue of bonds. A when-issued market is a market in government securities where securities are traded as forward contracts prior to their issue. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

Choice 'd' refers to a 'bought deal'. Choice 'b' refers to the 'grey market', usually in corporate bonds. Choice 'a' refers to a fixed price re-offer mechanism.

Since the stock is selling for $100 spot, its 3 month forward price for you would be $100*(1 + 6%*3/12) = $101.50. Since the forward is priced at $104, it is 'rich' compared to the spot and should be sold. A profitable trade would be to buy the spot and sell the forward.

Imagine you borrow $100 and buy the stock, and simultaneously sell the forward. At the end of 3 months, you will receive $104 in return from the forward, and be obliged to return the initial $100 borrowed together with interest of $1.50 for the three months. You would make a riskless profit of $2.50 per share in three months. Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

Note that the treasury yield is irrelevant, what matters is the rate at which you can finance the trade which is 6% per annum.

The buyer of a cap who is primarily interested in protecting against a rise in interest rates and does not mind losing some of the gains if interest rates were to fall can reduce her costs by selling a floor with a lower strike rate. Selling a cap would further expose her to the risk of rising rates, exactly what she is trying to protect herself against, and reducing the strike rate for the cap will actually increase the cost of the cap. Similarly, increasing the time period to which the cap applies will also increase the cost of the cap.

The transformation line represents the combination of a 'risky bundle' and the risk free asset. Investors can choose different combinations of these assets depending upon their risk appetite. The transformation line meets the y-axis (portfolio returns) at the point equal to the risk free rate. Choice 'b' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.The highest possible transformation line, ie the transformation line with the maximum slope, is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier. This line is called the 'capital markets line'. Investors can pick any point on this line according to their risk appetite, and doing so would maximize the return they can obtain for their desired level of risk. The capital markets line is tangential to the efficient frontier. The Sharpe ratio stays constant throughout the CML.

Kappa indices, which include the Sortino ratio and the Omega statistic, consider semi-variance, ie variance calculated only in respect of the downside risk instead of variance (which includes both upside and downside). This is because one criticism of other risk adjusted performance measures is that they take both upside and downside risk into account, even though a portfolio manager or investor is only concerned with managing the downside. The Kappa indices consider returns that are below a threshold to measure performance by. Therefore statement I is correct.

The Treynor ratio is calculated as [(Portfolio return - Risk free return)/Portfolio's beta]. It therefore calculates the excess return per unit of systematic risk and not specific risk. Therefore statement II is not correct.

Increasing portfolio leverage, ie borrowing to invest more in the portfolio, will increase the excess return of the portfolio in a linear fashion. However, it will also increase the volatility of such a portfolio in an identical linear way. Since Sharpe ratio is the ratio of 'excess returns' to standard deviation, the Sharpe ratio will stay constant. In other words, leverage does not impact Sharpe ratio, which is an attribute of this measure that allows us to compare performance across managers and funds regardless of leverage used. Statement III is not correct.

Jensen's alpha results from security selection, ie from specific risk the manager has taken. In a market portfolio, all specific risk is diversified away and only systematic risk remains. Therefore, statement IV is correct.

The security market line is generally shown graphically with returns on the y-axis and the asset's beta on the x-axis. The correct answer is Choice 'a'.

Note the difference between the SML and the CML (the capital markets line). The CML is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier, and expresses the relationship between risk and return.

Investors have differing view of the market, which means differing view of expected returns, correlations and volatilities. Not only do they have differing views, these views change frequently as new information reveals itself. Accordingly, each investor has their own version of the efficient frontier. Once investors have determined their efficient frontiers, they will determine the extent of risk they wish to hold. If they had identical views, they would have held the same portfolio. But they do not, and if they did, there would be very little trading in the markets.

All the above statements are true except statement I which is false due to differing investor expectations.

(Re statement IV: If investors have different risk appetites, their portfolio will vary in the split between the risky and the riskfree assets. But inside the 'risky' assets bundle the proportion of the assets will be identical. Ie, they would express their varying risk appetites by varying how much of the risky bundle and the riskfree asset they hold, but inside the risky bundle the proportion of the different risky assets will be the same.)

This is a two step problem:

First, calculate the bond price using the yield information, then

Second, once you know the bond price, calculate the 18 month zero rate using the bootstrap method.

Step 1: Bond valuation: All variables required for pricing the bond are known. The coupon payments will be $1.50 in 6 months and 1 year from now, and a final paymento of $101.50 will be received in an year's time. This can be discounted at the yield provided as follows, and summed together to get the bond price of $97.14.

Step 2: Boot strapping: Discount the 6 month and 12 month coupons at the zero rates for those periods, and subtract the total of these PVs from the bond price. These work out to 1.5/(1+2%/2) = 1.485, and 1.5/(1+3%/2)^2=1.456. That gives us the present value, $97.14 - $1.485 - 1.456 = $94.203, which grows to the final payment of $101.50 at the end of 18 months. The zero rate inherent in this price can then be worked out as we know that (1+r/2)^3 = 101.5/94.203, or r = 5.03%.

Overcollateralization is when the notes issued by the special purpose vehicle are less in value compared to the underlying pool of assets, thereby providing a buffer to absorb losses. Excess spread implies that the notes issued carry a lower interest rate than the interest rate received on the underlying assets. Cash reserves are reserves intended to take first hits when losses happen. All of these are valid credit enhancements for structured products. Additionally, 'insurance wraps' are also used as a credit enhancement. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

'Margin requirements' do not mean anything in this context and are not a valid credit enhancement used for credit derivatives.

Since the note pays daily LIBOR, there is no interest rate risk associated with this instrument. Note that interest rate risk for a fixed income instrument arises when the current interest rate changes to a rate different from that the instrument pays. In this case, the rate floats, and is reset daily, therefore there is no risk and the duration is 0. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

Only the butterfly spread has a payoff profile that benefits when prices do not move much. The collar benefits during declining markets, the straddle and the strangle benefit from sharp movements in the markets. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The forward rate from year 2 to year 3 in this case can be derived as =(1.05^3/1.04^2) - 1, or 7.03%. All other answers are incorrect.

Contingent premium options are options where no premiums are due upfront, and are due only at expiry and only if the option finishes in the money. (If this sounds too good to be true, remember that at expiry it is possible that the premiums due exceed the payoffs from the option. So there is no free lunch.) For this reason they are also called pay-later options.

They are simple combinations of a vanilla option and the 'right' number of cash-or-nothing options. The buyer of a contingent premium option has effectively purchased a vanilla option and sold enough number of cash-or-nothing options so that the net premium due at inception is zero.

Therefore statement I, II and III are correct and Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

The duration matched hedge is the best hedge for the bond manager. Matched durations in the bond portfolio and the hedge positions will ensure that any decline in the bond portfolio due to interest rate changes is matched by a rise in the futures position. Hedging dollar-to-dollar will not work unless the bonds and the futures contracts are identical in duration terms. For example, if the duration of the portfolio is 7 years, and each futures contract has a duration of 3.5 years, then selling $1m in value will only cover half the risk. Choice 'b' is the right answer.

The transformation line represents the various possible combinations of the 'risky bundle' and the risk free asset. Investors can choose different combinations of the risky and risk-free asset depending upon their risk appetite. The transformation line meets the y-axis (portfolio returns) at the point equal to the risk free rate. Choice 'a' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.

The highest possible transformation line, ie the transformation line with the maximum slope, is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier. This line is called the 'capital markets line'. Investors can pick any point on this line according to their risk appetite, and doing so would maximize the return they can obtain for their desired level of risk. The capital markets line is tangential to the efficient frontier. The Sharpe ratio stays constant throughout the CML.

Remember that the transformation line and the capital markets lines are different from each other - there is only one CML for an efficient frontier, whereas there can be multiple transformation lines.

Convexity is nothing but the second derivative with respect to price - or in other words, it is the first derivative of the modified duration. If we could determine two data points for modified duration, we can determine convexity too.

The modified duration is the percentage change in bond price from a 1% change in yield.

In this case, for the up move, the modified duration can be calculated as follows:

Change in price for 10 bps change in yield = $0.60/$95 =0.006316

Change in price for a 1% change in yield = 0.006316 * 10 = 0.06316

Therefore modified duration = 0.06316 * 100 = 6.316

For the down move in price, the modified duration is similarly $0.50/$95 * 10 * 100 = 5.263.

The convexity therefore is the difference between these two modified durations divided by the change in interest rates - note that these two points are separated by 10 basis points and not 20. Therefore convexity is (6.32 - 5.26)/0.1% = 1052.6.

[Note on how duration was calculated: In this case, we can estimate the duration of the bond as follows: we know that a 10 bps increase in rates causes the price to move to $94.50, and a 10 bps decrease causes the price to increase to $95.60. Thus, over the range of the 20 bps, the average change in price per basis point is ($95.60 - $94.50)/20 bps = $1.10/20 = $0.055/basis point, or $0.055* 100 = $5.5 for 100 basis points (ie 1%). We know that modified duration is equivalent to the percentage change in the bond price as a result of a 1% change in interest rates. A 1% change in the interest rates leading to a $5.5 change in a bond priced at $95 equates to $5.5/$95 = 5.79%, in other words the modified duration is roughly equal to 5.79 years.

In fact if we know the price of a bond at any two different interest rates, we can make an estimate of modified duration. Modified duration is just the first derivative with respect to price, and given two prices and the associated yields, we can easily calculate modified duration to be the ratio of the change in price to the change in interest rates. In this question, we are given both an up move and a down move. Using this estimation, only one data point (ie, either the up price or the down price) in addition to the starting point ($95) would have been enough to come to a rough estimate of modified duration. You will notice that the modified duration would be slightly different if we were to use the high point and the starting point (ie $95.60 and $95), and the starting point and the lower point ($95 and $94.50). The difference is due to convexity. The decrease in price is lower than the increase in price - and this is due to the convexity of the bond.]

When hedging an equity portfolio with index futures, the number of futures contracts to hold is given by the [beta x value of portfolio/value of one futures contract]. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

The volatility, risk free rate have nothing to do with determining the number of futures contracts to hold. Systematic risk is expressed in the form of beta. Therefore the other choices are incorrect.

Over the counter and electronic communication networks match buyers and sellers. However, there is no market making function, ie, in periods of stress liquidity may completely disappear from these markets. Exchanges normally have market makers that are required to present two way quotes on the securities they are making the market for. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

When hedging one fixed income security with another, the question as to how much of the hedge to buy (or sell) (ie the hedge ratio) for a given primary position is determined by their respective basis point values, which in turn are determined by their duration. Therefore, when hedging a long maturity bond with a PV01 of $3 with a short maturity bond that has a PV of $1, we will need to buy 3 times the notional value of the short maturity bond to achieve the same sensitivity to interest rates as the longer maturity bond. Additionally, we may also expect the interest rates on the hedge to move differently from the interest rates on the primary instrument being hedged, and this needs to be accounted for as well as part of the hedge ratio calculation. This is called the yield beta and is calculated as change in yield for primary position/change in yield for the hedge security.

The hedge ratio is determined both by the yield beta and the BPVs of the two securities.

In this case, the yield beta is 1 (as the question speaks of a parallel shift in the yield curve, ie all rates rise or fall together), and the ratio of the BPVs is 5/8. Therefore she should sell 5/8 x 1,000,000 = $625,000 of the 30 year bond.

Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

Interest rate caps are effectively call options on an underlying interest rate that protect the buyer of the cap against a rise in interest rates over the agreed exercise rate. As with options, the premium on the cap depends upon the volatility of the underlying rates as one of its variables. A floor is the exact opposite of a cap, ie it is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate that protects the buyer of the floor against a fall in interest rates below the agreed exercise rate.

A cap protects a borrower against a rise in interest rates beyond a point, and a floor protects a lender against a fall in interest rates below a point.

A collar is a combination of a long cap and a short floor, the idea being that the premium due on the cap is offset partly by the premium earned on the short floor position. Therefore a collar is less expensive than a cap or a floor.

Caps, floors and collars provide a hedge against interest rate risks, but do not protect against changes in credit spreads unless the reference rate already includes the spread (eg, by reference to the corporate bond rate), and they certainly do not have anything to do with gamma risk. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

A quanto is any instrument in which one asset is a foreign currency. Examples include any option on a foreign currency asset with the strike price in foreign currency, and an option on a foreign currency asset with the foreign currency risk hedged.

Correlation products refer to credit products on a basket of credits. Options on options represent an option to buy or sell an option in the future, and they are not 'quantos'. Similarly, not every two asset instrument is a quanto unless one of the two assets is a foreign currency.