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PMI PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

Demo: 112 questions
Total 748 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following can be used to determine what work is included in each work package for each of your team members?

Options:

A.

None of the choices are correct

B.

WBS dictionary

C.

RBS

D.

Project scope statement

Question 2

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed during which process?

Options:

A.

Distribute Information

B.

Administrative Closeout

C.

Organizational Planning

D.

Report Performance

Question 3

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

Question 4

Forcing as a means to manage conflict ______________.

Options:

A.

Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party

B.

Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement

C.

Establishes a lose-lose situation

D.

Both A and c

Question 5

A project is considered successful when _______________.

Options:

A.

The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

B.

The product of the project has been manufactured

C.

The project sponsor announces the completion of the project

D.

None of the above

Question 6

The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the _____________________.

Options:

A.

Risk Quantification

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Risk Analysis

D.

Risk Response Development

Question 7

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.

Options:

A.

Innovation

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Just in time

D.

Paradigm

Question 8

Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?

Options:

A.

The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.

B.

The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.

C.

The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.

D.

Both A and c

Question 9

Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?

Options:

A.

Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.

B.

The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.

C.

Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and non-conformance.

D.

All of the above are true.

Question 10

The sender is responsible for ____________.

Options:

A.

Confirming the message is understood

B.

Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message

C.

Scheduling communication exchange

D.

Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

Question 11

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of _________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

Question 12

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?

Options:

A.

Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.

B.

Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives.

C.

Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.

D.

A definitive resolution is seldom achieved.

Question 13

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Cause and Effect Diagram

B.

Fishbone Diagram

C.

Ishikawa Diagram

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 14

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.

Options:

A.

Two or more managers

B.

One manager

C.

Only functional manager

D.

None

Question 15

Project management processes organized into ______________.

Options:

A.

Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

B.

Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing

C.

Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

D.

Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing

Question 16

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered _____________.

Options:

A.

Project selection methods

B.

Project selection criteria

C.

A form of expert judgment

D.

A form of historical information

Question 17

Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?

Options:

A.

Unknown unknowns

B.

Known unknowns

C.

Business risks

D.

Pure risks

Question 18

A contingency plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs

B.

A workaround

C.

A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part

D.

Both A and c

Question 19

Which of the following is true regarding NPV?

Options:

A.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

B.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.

C.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

D.

NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.

Question 20

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

"S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables

C.

Performance reports

D.

Change requests

Question 21

You are in process of identifying and documenting the project roles and responsibilities and create staffing management plan. All of the following should be addressed when listing the roles and responsibilities EXCEP:

Options:

A.

Competency

B.

Authority

C.

Responsibility

D.

Compliance

Question 22

A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC) contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller?

Options:

A.

$143,000

B.

$142,000

C.

$140,000

D.

$132,000

Question 23

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Administrative Closure

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Resolution

Question 24

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called __________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

Question 25

___________ is a groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

Question 26

Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of which of the following:

Options:

A.

Project Management Team

B.

Human Resources Department

C.

Executive Manager

D.

Project Manager

Question 27

A project is defined as ________________.

Options:

A.

A process of considerable scope that implements a plan

B.

An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people and constrained by limited resources

C.

A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service

D.

An objective based effort of temporary nature

Question 28

A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is called __________.

Options:

A.

Quality Policy

B.

check List

C.

Trend Analysis

D.

Paieto Diagram

Question 29

In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract

B.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

C.

Firm Fixed price contract

D.

Fixed-price-incentive fee contract

Question 30

A is the correct answer. Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.

Options:

A.

Financial records

B.

Inspection specifications

C.

Project charter

D.

Project reports

Question 31

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?

Options:

Question 32

An example of risk mitigation is:

Options:

A.

Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.

B.

Purchasing insurance

C.

Eliminating the cause of a risk

D.

You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.

Question 33

Cost of Quality is a project management concept that includes cost of _________.

Options:

A.

Exceeding requirements

B.

Changes to the requirements

C.

Ensuring conformance to requirements

D.

The quality control requirements

Question 34

The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?

Options:

A.

Theory Y

B.

Theory Z

C.

Theory X

D.

Contingency Theory

Question 35

Risks are accepted when __________.

Options:

A.

You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.

B.

To eliminate the threat entirely.

C.

You transfer the risk to another party.

D.

Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.

Question 36

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called ______________________.

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Fishbone diagram

C.

Ishikawa diagram

D.

All of the above

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk analysis Process?

Options:

A.

Expected Monetary Value Analysis

B.

Risk Categorization

C.

Interviewing

D.

Sensitivity Analysis

Question 38

Parametric Estimate Costs involves:

Options:

A.

Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package

B.

Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs

C.

Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs

D.

Both A and B

Question 39

The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality function?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Project Manager

C.

Project Team

D.

Vendors and Suppliers

Question 40

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

B.

Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

C.

Fixed-price-incentive fee contract

D.

Firm-fixed-price contract

Question 41

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:

Options:

A.

Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative

B.

Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring

C.

Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment

D.

Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating

Question 42

Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC - ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and C

Question 43

Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process include which of the following:

Options:

A.

Benefit/cost analysis

B.

Control charts

C.

Cost of Quality

D.

All of the above

Question 44

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?

Options:

A.

Organizational Planning

B.

stan< Acquisition

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Team Development

Question 45

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the _______.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

Question 46

Which of the following statement is true about Quality control?

Options:

A.

Monitoring specific project results to determine If they comply with relevant quality standards

B.

Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis

C.

Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project

D.

Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project

Question 47

Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?

Options:

A.

PMBOK

B.

PMI

C.

PM0

D.

PMA

Question 48

What is the key difference between a contract close-out and an administrative closure?

Options:

A.

Contract close-out formalizes project completion.

B.

Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.

C.

Administrative closure includes procurement audits.

D.

Contract close-out includes product verification.

Question 49

In project planning, which one of the following is the LEAST applicable to the resource assignment matrix?

Options:

A.

The lines of communication both with in and outside the project

B.

The compensation level of participants

C.

The assignment of responsibilities to the work breakdown stricture

D.

The authority to approve at various completion stages

Question 50

You are a project manager for a manufacturing firm . You discover a design error during a test production run on your latest project. Which of the following is the most likely response to this problem?

Options:

A.

Reduce the technical requirements so that the error Is no longer valid.

B.

Go forward with production, and ignore the error.

C.

Go forward with production, but inform the customer of the problem.

D.

Develop alternative solutions to address the error.

Question 51

What techniques are used to control the project schedule?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance measurement

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 52

You are the project manager for Tech Days Seminar Homes. Your new project assignment is to head the Days Seminar Home opening in Mountainview, CA. You are estimating the duration of the project plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Quality Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Question 53

Which of the following best describes the conflict resolution technique that involves problem solving and fact finding missions in order to discuss a win-win resolution?

Options:

A.

Withdrawal

B.

Forcing

C.

Confrontation

D.

Smoothing

Question 54

Which of the following are not tools and techniques of source selection ?

Options:

A.

a weighting system.

B.

Organizational policies

C.

Independent estimates.

D.

A screening system.

Question 55

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project close-out?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Question 56

What is the BEST way to accomplish resource planning?

Options:

A.

Identify required resources and allocate them to all project activities.

B.

Identify required resources in the project charter.

C.

Identify available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current phase of the project.

D.

Identify the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all project activities.

Question 57

18 You are the project manager of a software company. As software development can be very chaotic, your company has decided to follow a more rigorous approach to software development. Specifically your company has chosen to adopt the extreme programming XP methodology for your current software project. The XP methodology is highly iterative, and produces numerous deliverables include UML diagrams, architecture diagrams, prototypes and test-cases. Assume you are in the Sequence Activities phase of the project. Which of the following sequencing methods should you use to identify the logical relationships between tasks, so that the activities can be sequenced correctly?

Options:

A.

ADM

B.

PDM

C.

GEPT

D.

A0A

Question 58

Which of the following best describes the risks that still remain after avoidance, transfer, or mitigation responses have been implemented?

Options:

A.

Contingency risks

B.

Tertiary risks

C.

Residual risks

D.

Secondary risks

Question 59

How many communication channels will be required in a project having five individual participants?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

Question 60

Which of the following is output of Direct and Manage Project Execution ?

Options:

A.

Change requests.

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Project character

Question 61

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered

Options:

A.

Project selection methods

B.

Project selection criteria

C.

A form of expert judgment

D.

A form of historical information

Question 62

In the arrow diagramming method, which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Milestone events

C.

Path activities

D.

Accounting support costs.

Question 63

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

Question 64

A project is considered successful when:

Options:

A.

The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders.

B.

The product of the project has been manufactured.

C.

The project sponsor announces the completion of the project.

D.

None of the above

Question 65

You are the project manager and have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope process. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Value analysis

D.

Control Scope

Question 66

23 Reverse analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Activity resource estimation

C.

Cost estimation

D.

Determine Budget

Question 67

You are the project manager and cost or schedule for a project is often dictated by management. In this situation, you should take all of the following steps EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Accept is with no prior action.

B.

Inform management of the consequences.

C.

Negotiate scope.

D.

Perform risk assessment.

Question 68

Planning components are tools or techniques of the Define Activities process. Which of the following are planning components?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 69

After preparing a probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, the estimate with a 20% probability of being exceeded is approximately one standard deviation:

Options:

A.

Below the mean.

B.

Above the mean.

C.

Below the median.

D.

Above the median.

Question 70

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

Question 71

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 10 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

45

B.

12

C.

10

D.

5

Question 72

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 73

In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Outside

D.

Assigned

Question 74

Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Funding limit reconciliation

C.

Reserves analysis

D.

None of the above

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Earn Value Analysis

B.

Scope Baseline

C.

P'sk Register

D.

Human Resource Plan

Question 76

You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?

Options:

A.

$-00,000

B.

$200,00

C.

$50,000

D.

None of the above

Question 77

Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of ____________.

Options:

A.

Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B.

Integral parts of the SOW

C.

Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment

D.

Project selection methods

Question 78

You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Budget

Question 79

You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Planning process

Question 80

A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.

Options:

A.

Project archives

B.

Index

C.

sow

D.

Project History

Question 81

Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

None of the above

Question 82

Project scope is _____________.

Options:

A.

The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B.

The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

C.

Part °ftne project charter

D.

Part of sow

Question 83

The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B.

Announce project risks

C.

Not consider risks affecting the company

D.

Announce project deliverables

Question 84

Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Team Leader

C.

Sponsor

D.

Project Team

Question 85

Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Question 86

Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?

Options:

A.

c'ose contracts

B.

Lessons learned documentation

C.

Deliverable acceptance

D.

Scope statement

Question 87

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

Options:

A.

Project task

B.

w°rl< package

C.

sow

D.

None

Question 88

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

Question 89

_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F'xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

"'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price

Question 90

Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

Question 91

Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

Options:

A.

Formal acceptance

B.

WBS template

C.

sow acceptance

D.

Rework

Question 92

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

Question 93

Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of which of the following Project Scheduling technique:

Options:

A.

Resource Leveling

B.

Schedule Compression

C.

Critical Path Method

D.

What if Analysis

Question 94

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Define Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 95

What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 96

In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Dedicated project team

Question 97

The scope management provides:

Options:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

Question 98

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

Question 99

The Project Procurement Management includes:

Options:

A.

Procurement planning

B.

Solicitation planning

C.

Solicitation

D.

All of the above

Question 100

An example of a project is:

Options:

A.

Billing customers

B.

Managing an organization

C.

Constructing a building

D.

Providing technical support

Question 101

Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

Options:

A.

Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.

B.

The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.

C.

Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.

D.

a and b

Question 102

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

harm

C.

Schedul

D.

Budget

Question 103

The process that is not a part of time management is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Resource Planning

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 104

A Resource Leveling is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 105

A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

A project plan

B.

A risk analysis

C.

A scope management plan

D.

A scope statement

Question 106

The Staffing Management Plan ___________, will be formal or informal.

Options:

A.

Depending on the size and complexity of the project

B.

Depending on the management

C.

Depending on the project manager

D.

Depending on the size only

Question 107

What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack?

Options:

A.

Lots of free float

B.

Idle resources

C.

Negative float

D.

Positive float

Question 108

The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called:

Options:

A.

phase exit

B.

Ml point

C.

state gate

D.

all of the above

Question 109

Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

Contract change control system

Contract negotiation

Payment system

Performance rating

Options:

Question 110

Which of the following is an input to a Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements

B.

Costbaseline

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Chart of accounts

Question 111

Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.

Options:

A.

Generally Accurate

B.

Generally less accurate

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

None

Question 112

Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a CAPM.

Options:

A.

Project Management Policy of Ethics

B.

Project Management Professional Standards

C.

Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards

D.

Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

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