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PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 340 questions
Total 1135 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Question 2

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Question 3

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Question 4

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 5

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

Question 6

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question 7

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Question 8

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question 9

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

Question 10

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Options:

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Question 11

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Question 12

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Question 13

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 14

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Question 15

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Question 16

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Question 17

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 18

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 19

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

Question 20

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Question 21

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question 22

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Question 23

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question 24

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Question 25

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Question 26

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

Options:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Question 27

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

Options:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

Question 28

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Question 29

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

Question 30

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

Question 31

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 32

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Question 33

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Question 34

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question 35

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Question 36

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

Question 37

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

Question 38

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Question 39

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question 40

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

Question 41

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Question 42

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Question 43

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Question 44

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Question 45

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Question 46

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 47

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Question 48

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Question 49

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

Question 50

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 51

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

Question 52

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

Question 53

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

Options:

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

Question 54

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Question 55

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

Options:

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

Question 56

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 57

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

Options:

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Question 58

Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement and accepted deliverables

B.

Scope baseline and project documents update

C.

Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Scope baseline and work performance information

Question 59

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

Question 60

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

Question 61

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

Question 62

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Question 63

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

Question 64

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

Question 65

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

Question 66

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

Question 67

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Question 68

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

Question 69

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

Options:

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 70

Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project charter, business documents, and project management plan

B.

Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan

C.

Project charter, business case, and project management plan

D.

Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan

Question 71

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

Question 72

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

Options:

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Question 73

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

Question 74

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

Options:

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Question 75

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 76

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Question 77

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

Options:

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

Question 78

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

Options:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Question 79

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

Options:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Question 80

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

Question 81

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

Question 82

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

Question 83

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

Options:

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

Question 84

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 85

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

Question 86

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question 87

Which statement is related to the project manager's sphere of influence at the organizational level?

Options:

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

Question 88

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

Options:

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question 89

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

Question 90

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

Question 91

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Question 92

Which of the following best correspond to the organizational process assets (OPAs) that affect the project?

Options:

A.

Policies and lessons learned from other projects

B.

Information technology software and employee capability

C.

Resource availability and employee capability

D.

Marketplace conditions and legal restrictions

Question 93

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

Question 94

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

Options:

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

Question 95

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Question 96

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Question 97

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

Options:

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

Question 98

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Question 99

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 100

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

Question 101

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Question 102

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 103

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 104

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Question 105

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Question 106

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question 107

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question 108

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 109

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 110

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 111

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question 112

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question 113

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question 114

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

Question 115

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 116

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Question 117

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question 118

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Question 119

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Question 120

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question 121

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 122

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

Question 123

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Question 124

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 125

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Question 126

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Question 127

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Question 128

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Question 129

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Question 130

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Question 131

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Question 132

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Question 133

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

Question 134

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

Question 135

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question 136

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Question 137

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Question 138

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question 139

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 140

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Question 141

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Question 142

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question 143

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Question 144

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Question 145

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 146

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question 147

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Question 148

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 149

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

Question 150

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Question 151

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question 152

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 153

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Question 154

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Question 155

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Question 156

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Question 157

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 158

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question 159

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Question 160

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Question 161

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 162

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Question 163

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 164

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 165

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Question 166

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Question 167

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

Options:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

Question 168

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

Question 169

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

Question 170

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question 171

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

Question 172

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question 173

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Question 174

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Question 175

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Question 176

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 177

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Question 178

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question 179

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 180

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Question 181

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 182

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question 183

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Question 184

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Question 185

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Question 186

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

Options:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Question 187

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

Question 188

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Question 189

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question 190

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question 191

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Question 192

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Question 193

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Question 194

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

Options:

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Question 195

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question 196

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Question 197

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

Question 198

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 199

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Question 200

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Question 201

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Question 202

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question 203

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question 204

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 205

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Question 206

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Question 207

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 208

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 209

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Question 210

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 211

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Question 212

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question 213

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Question 214

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question 215

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Question 216

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question 217

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Options:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Question 218

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 219

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Question 220

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Question 221

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 222

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Question 223

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 224

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question 225

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

Question 226

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Question 227

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Question 228

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 229

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

Question 230

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Question 231

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question 232

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 233

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Question 234

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

Question 235

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Question 236

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

Question 237

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question 238

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Question 239

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 240

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 241

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question 242

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 243

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question 244

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Question 245

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

Question 246

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

Question 247

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

Options:

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Question 248

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

Question 249

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Question 250

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

Options:

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

Question 251

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 252

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

Options:

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

Question 253

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

Question 254

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity Cā€™s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 days

D .10 days

Question 255

Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrence

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

Question 256

What is the primary benefit of the Manage Quality process?

Options:

A.

Increases the probability of meeting quality objectives

B.

Enhances the performance of the product berg created

C.

Defines quality roles and responsibilities

D.

Ensures that the project is completed as originally planned

Question 257

What is the most important skill that project managers should possess to lead stakeholders throughout a project?

Options:

A.

Communication

B.

Problem-solving

C.

Negotiating

D.

Trust-building

Question 258

Due to new market conditions a five-year project......need to be updated

Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives. Which components to the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

Options:

A.

Scope and impact of change to stakeholders

B.

Project scope and stakeholders goals

C.

Engagement level of key stakeholders

D.

Stakeholders expectations for the project

Question 259

Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes and meeting management

B.

Project schedule and glossary of common terminology

C.

Escalation processes and stakeholder communication requirements

D.

Interactive communication model and information to be communicated

Question 260

Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.

Options:

Question 261

Select three elements that apply to agile/ adaptive environments

Options:

A.

Frequent team checkpoints

B.

Colocation

C.

Access to information

D.

Virtual team members

E.

Geographically dispersed team

Question 262

Project governance refers to framework.......which of the following is a portfolio?

Pioject governance refers lo framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activates with a defined hierarchy between projects, programs and poctfotos. According to this hierarchy, which ot Die following is a portfolio?

Options:

A.

A portfolio is a group of projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios and operations managed together to achieve strategic objectives.

B.

A portfolio is the mam project of the company, supervised directly by the CEO.

C.

A portfolio is a group of projects managed by the same project manager.

D.

A portfolio is a group of related proiecls, programs, subsidary portfolios, and operation*, thai provides similar products or services.

Question 263

A product owner wants to ensure that the project's requirements, including product requirements, are met and validated. To do this project manager wants.

Match each process to its definition.

Options:

Question 264

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

Question 265

A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?

Options:

A.

Traceability matrix

B Lessons learned

B.

Change control procedures

D Resource availability

Question 266

How can a project manager ensure effective project stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Build a stakeholder responsibility matrix

B.

Hold weekly project staff meetings

C.

Improve interpersonal and team leadership skills

D.

Create detailed project reports for stakeholders

Question 267

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

Question 268

Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.

Options:

Question 269

Which is the appropriate tool to identify the possible correlation two elements in aprocess?

Options:

A.

Scatter diagram

B.

Cause and effect diagram

C.

Histogram

D.

Control charts

Question 270

At what stages of project should the identify Stakeholder process be performed?

Options:

A.

When beginning each phase of the project

B.

At the beginning of the project only

C.

Only when the project manager is concerned about stakeholder satisfaction

D.

When the project charter is produced, at the beginning of each phase, and when significant changes occur

Question 271

A Project manager is using agile in a project. As development life cycle is adaptive, how does the project manager handle key stakeholder involvement?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are regularly involved

B.

Key stakeholders are continuously involved

C.

Key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones

D.

Key stakeholders are always involved

Question 272

What does earned value (EV) measure?

Options:

A.

Budgeted work that has been completed

B.

Total costs incurred while accomplishing work

C.

Budget associated with planned work

D.

Cost efficiency of budgeted resources

Question 273

The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.

Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

6

Question 274

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

Question 275

What does ā€™verifiedā€™ in verified deliverable represent?

Options:

A.

The correctness of a deliverable

B.

The completeness of a deliverable

C.

The deliverable requirements

D.

The customer acceptance of a deliverable

Question 276

Company Aā€™s accountant sends notification about a change in the companyā€™s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

Options:

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

Question 277

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

Question 278

What risk response strategy involves removing high- risk scope elements from a project?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Avoid

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Question 279

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

Question 280

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Question 281

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Question 282

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

Question 283

Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?

Options:

A.

Operations Management

B.

Project Management

C.

Program Management

D.

Portfolio Management

Question 284

Match the process with its corresponding process group.

Options:

Question 285

What tool or technique will establish expected behaviors for project team members?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Decision mating

C.

Power/influence grid

D.

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Question 286

How is program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Question 287

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

Question 288

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.

Expert judgempnt and decision making

Question 289

What tool or technique is primarily used to plan risk responses'?

Options:

A.

Risk categorization

B.

Project risk document updates

C.

Strategies for overall project risk

D.

Risk management plan

Question 290

What is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management'?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approach

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Validation and control

D.

Project complexity

Question 291

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

Options:

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

Question 292

A project manager proactively meets with other project managers who manage other projects in the same program. To minimize the impact that other projects within the program may have on their project of what should the project manager be aware?

Options:

A.

Demands on the same resources

B.

Requirements that impact the scope

C.

Uncertainty of emerging issues

D.

Project charter

Question 293

One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?

Options:

A.

It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope

B.

It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project

C.

It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated

D.

It provides the needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group

Question 294

Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?

Options:

A.

Defining, sequencing, estimating activity duration, and developing a schedule model are so tightly inked that they are viewed as a single process.

B.

The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge

C.

An iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required.

D.

To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted

Question 295

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Question 296

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question 297

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Question 298

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 299

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Question 300

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Question 301

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Question 302

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Question 303

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Question 304

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

Question 305

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Question 306

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 307

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Question 308

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question 309

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Question 310

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 311

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Question 312

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question 313

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOKĀ® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question 314

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Question 315

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Question 316

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Question 317

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

Question 318

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 319

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 320

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 321

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question 322

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

Question 323

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Question 324

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Question 325

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 326

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Question 327

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 328

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Question 329

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 330

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Question 331

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question 332

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

Question 333

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 334

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Options:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

Question 335

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Question 336

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

Question 337

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question 338

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 339

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Question 340

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

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