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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 63 questions
Total 212 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

Question 2

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

Options:

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

Question 3

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

Question 4

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

Question 5

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

Question 6

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

Question 7

What is the purpose of implementing ongoing and periodic review activities?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for external audits.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of operations.

C.

To gauge the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of actions and controls.

D.

To have documentation for use in defending against enforcement or legal actions.

Question 8

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

Options:

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

Question 9

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

Question 10

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

Question 11

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

Question 12

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

Question 13

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

Question 14

What is the role of identification criteria?

Options:

A.

Identification criteria are used to determine the order in which units undertake identification activities.

B.

Identification criteria are used to calculate the total budget for the organization based on priority objectives and the number of related obstacles and obligations.

C.

Identification criteria are used to focus on priority objectives and results.

D.

Identification criteria are used to establish the communication channels within the organization regarding opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

Question 15

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Likelihood and impact

B.

Probability and consequence

C.

Certainty and effect

D.

Accuracy and precision

Question 16

Which organization and its membership created the concepts of Principled Performance and GRC?

Options:

A.

IAPP (International Association of Privacy Professionals)

B.

AICPA (American Institute of Certified Public Accountants)

C.

ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association)

D.

IFAC (International Federation of Accountants)

E.

IMA (Institute of Management Accountants)

F.

SCCE (Society of Corporate Compliance and Ethics)

G.

ACFE (Association of Certified Fraud Examiners)

Question 17

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 18

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

Options:

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

Question 19

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

Question 20

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and setdirection?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

Question 21

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

Question 22

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

Question 23

How do values influence the way an organization operates?

Options:

A.

They establish the organization’s code of conduct

B.

They set voluntary boundaries for how the organization operates and often explain design decisions about the operating model

C.

They dictate the organization’s pricing strategy and revenue generation

D.

They determine the organization's market share and competitive positioning as part of assessing its financial value to shareholders

Question 24

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

Question 25

In the IACM, what is the role of Governance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist the governing authority in constraining and constraining the organization

B.

To develop and implement innovative business strategies

C.

To engage with stakeholders and address their concerns

D.

To monitor and evaluate the performance of suppliers and vendors

Question 26

How do organizational values contribute to acting with integrity?

Options:

A.

Adhering to established organizational values helps create a shared sense of purpose and direction, aligning actions and decisions with the organization's mission and goals

B.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by increasing the organization’s market share and profitability, which will satisfy shareholders to whom promises were made

C.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by allowing the organization to bypass certain legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by reducing the likelihood of enforcement actions because the organization is self-regulating

Question 27

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

Question 28

How does the Maturity Model help organizations assess their preparedness to perform practices?

Options:

A.

By evaluating the performance of managers and their teams involved in GRC processes

B.

By acting as a tool for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

C.

By helping organizations determine the budget allocation for GRC programs and where to apply resources across the GRC capabilities

D.

By providing a continuum with levels that allow organizations to assess their capability to perform practices, identify areas for improvement, and develop maturity incrementally from one level to the next

Question 29

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 30

In the GRC Capability Model, what is the primary focus of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Implementing new policies and procedures to enhance organizational performance

B.

Continuously improving total performance by monitoring actions and controls and providing assurance about priority objectives, opportunities, obstacles, and obligations

C.

Exclusively focusing on monitoring actions and controls without providing assurance

D.

Conducting audits and inspections to identify non-compliance issues

Question 31

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

Question 32

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

Question 33

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

Question 34

How can inconsistent incentives impact the perception of employees and business partners?

Options:

A.

They can reduce the risk of legal disputes

B.

They can lead to perceptions of favoritism and mistrust

C.

They can increase employee motivation and productivity

D.

They can improve the company’s public image

Question 35

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

Question 36

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

Question 37

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

Question 38

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

Question 39

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

Question 40

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

Question 41

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

Options:

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

Question 42

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

Question 43

What is the objective of improving actions and controls to address root causes and weaknesses associated with unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

C.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events.

D.

To ensure that future events of similar nature are less likely to occur and are less harmful.

Question 44

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

Question 45

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

Question 46

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

Question 47

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

Question 48

Why is it important to provide a helpline for the workforce and other stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the education program

C.

To develop new content for the education program based on questions asked

D.

To allow them to seek guidance about future conduct, ask general questions, and have the option for anonymity

Question 49

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

Question 50

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

Options:

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

Question 51

Which statement is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

Question 52

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

Question 53

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

Question 54

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

Question 55

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

Options:

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

Question 56

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

Question 57

What is the design option that involves ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Control

Question 58

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

Options:

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

Question 59

What is the significance of “assurance objectivity” in providing a higher level of assurance?

Options:

A.

It is only important for high levels of assurance in financial audits

B.

It is not relevant to the level of assurance and does not affect the assurance process

C.

It contributes to a higher level of assurance by enhancing impartiality and credibility

D.

It is determined by the governing authority and enhances the level of assurance

Question 60

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

Question 61

What is the purpose of conducting after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events

B.

To provide timely incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To uncover root causes of favorable and unfavorable events and improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

To establish a tiered approach for responding to unfavorable events

Question 62

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

Question 63

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

Options:

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

Demo: 63 questions
Total 212 questions