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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 46 questions
Total 155 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

Question 2

What is the essence or the central meaning of GRC?

Options:

A.

A connected and integrated approach that provides a pathway to Principled Performance by overcoming VUCA and disconnection

B.

A system for monitoring and evaluating the performance of employees and teams

C.

A set of guidelines and regulations for corporate governance and ethical conduct

D.

A framework for managing financial risks and ensuring fiscal responsibility

Question 3

What are the four dimensions used to assess Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Quality, Productivity, Flexibility, and Durability

B.

Accuracy, Precision, Speed, and Stability

C.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

D.

Compliance, Consistency, Adaptability, and Robustness

Question 4

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

Question 5

What are some examples of informal mechanisms that can capture notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

An open-door policy and direct communication with management.

B.

Public announcements and press releases.

C.

Standard reporting forms and documentation.

D.

Audits and third-party assessments.

Question 6

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

Question 7

What is the duality of compliance, and how does it relate to risk?

Options:

A.

The duality of compliance refers to the distinction between domestic and international regulations that an organization must follow.

B.

The duality of compliance refers to the trade-off between investing in compliance measures and allocating resources to other business areas.

C.

The duality of compliance involves addressing both compliance with obligations and compliance-related risks. Compliance involves meeting mandatory and voluntary obligations, while compliance-related risks involve addressing the risk of negative outcomes associated with non-compliance.

D.

The duality of compliance refers to the balance between financial gains and ethical considerations in business decisions.

Question 8

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

Question 9

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

Options:

A.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization.

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event.

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

D.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

Question 10

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

Question 11

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

Question 12

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

Question 13

Which category of actions and controls in the IACM includes human factors such as structure, accountability, education, and enablement?

Options:

A.

Technology

B.

Policy

C.

Information

D.

People

Question 14

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be "Lean"?

Options:

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

Question 15

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

Options:

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

Question 16

In the context of Total Performance, what considerations are made for resilience in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of employees who have completed advanced training.

B.

The frequency of updates to the education program's curriculum.

C.

The availability of online and offline training materials.

D.

Contingency plans for system failure, slack in timelines, and availability of backup staff.

Question 17

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

Question 18

What are the two aspects of value that Protectors are skilled at balancing within an organization?

Options:

A.

Value creation and value protection

B.

Value production and value preservation

C.

Value measurement and value analysis

D.

Value assessment and value reporting

Question 19

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

Options:

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

Question 20

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

Options:

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

Question 21

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

Question 22

What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization’s external context?

Options:

A.

Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.

B.

Political involvement of competitors.

C.

New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.

D.

New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.

Question 23

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

Options:

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

Question 24

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

Options:

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

Question 25

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

Question 26

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and set direction?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

Question 27

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

Question 28

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

Question 29

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

Question 30

What are norms?

Options:

A.

Norms are customs, rules, or expectations that a group socially reinforces.

B.

Norms are the typical ways that the business operates.

C.

Norms are the regular employees of an organization as opposed to contractors brought in for unusual (not normal) projects.

D.

Norms are the normal or typical financial targets set by the organization.

Question 31

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

Question 32

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

Options:

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

Question 33

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

Options:

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

Question 34

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

Question 35

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

Question 36

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

Question 37

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

Question 38

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

Question 39

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

Question 40

Which is a potential consequence of information compression in layered communication?

Options:

A.

Uninformed decision-making by mid-level management

B.

No consequence of concern if the correct, undistorted information is always available in the information management systems

C.

Incorrect information content and information flow to superior units

D.

Discovery of the need to remove layers so that the communications are more direct and distortion is avoided

Question 41

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

Question 42

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 43

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

Question 44

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

Options:

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

Question 45

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

Question 46

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

Demo: 46 questions
Total 155 questions