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Nokia 4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Exam Practice Test

Demo: 52 questions
Total 352 questions
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Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.

Web browser.

C.

Email application.

D.

Telnet.

Question 2

The statement below describes which of the following activities?

"A set of tasks that moves a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network."

Options:

A.

IP forwarding

B.

IP decapsulation

C.

IP encapsulation

D.

IP tunneling

Question 3

Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Interface MTU.

B.

Area ID.

C.

Authentication password.

D.

Hello interval.

E.

Dead interval.

F.

Router priority.

Question 4

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button).

R2 wants to connect a host on 192.168.2.0/24 behind CR1. What is the correct next-hop to use, assuming R1 is configured correctly?

Options:

A.

10.2.3.2

B.

10.1.1.1

C.

10.2.3.1

D.

10.1.1.2

Question 5

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

Question 6

What are some of the characteristics of BGP? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

B.

BGP routing is based on distance vector.

C.

BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

D.

A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a function of TCP?

Options:

A.

Maintaining the ordering of data transmitted across the network.

B.

Ensuring the reliable transmission of data across the network.

C.

Providing the receiver with a flow control mechanism.

D.

Defining the method for routing data across the network.

Question 8

Which statement best describes an SDP?

Options:

A.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

B.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

C.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

D.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

Question 9

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Options:

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

Question 10

Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Ethernet

B.

ATM

C.

Token Ring

D.

Frame Relay

Question 11

A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 12

Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and termination of a TCP connection?

Options:

A.

TTL

B.

ACK

C.

FIN

D.

SYN

Question 13

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 14

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

Question 15

From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

Options:

A.

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

Question 16

Which of the following statements is FALSE when describing a Virtual Private LAN Service?

Options:

A.

A VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

B.

The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

C.

When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be dropped.

D.

MAC addresses are maintained in a MAC address forwarding database (FDB).

Question 17

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing protocols or static routes are configured.

B.

A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.

C.

An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most physical bandwidth)

D.

An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the destination.

Question 18

Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

E.

VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Question 19

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

Options:

A.

On the CE device.

B.

On the PE device.

C.

On the P device.

D.

On both CE and PE devices.

Question 20

What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

Options:

A.

10.2.3.2

B.

10.2.3.1

C.

192.168.2.0

D.

10.1.1.1

Question 21

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.1.0/24 installed in router 2’s routing table?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

Question 22

Which of the following best describes a hub?

Options:

A.

A device used to connect cables with signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and replicates data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and forwards data based on the MAC destination address.

D.

A device that receives and forwards data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

Question 23

TCP is sending data in 5 segments with SEQ numbers 27000, 27500.28000, 28500, and 29000 respectively. During transmission, the segment with SEQ=28500 is dropped in the network. How does TCP handle this situation?

Options:

A.

The receiving end station sends an ACK flag with SEQ=28000 to indicate it has received a segment out of order.

B.

The receiving station sends a NACK frame with SEQ=28500 requesting that the frame be retransmitted

C.

Once the reciever's window is full. TCP assembles the payload and determines that SEQ=28500 is missing. At this point, the reciever sends the RST flag with SEQ=28500 to Request Single Transmission of the missing segment.

D.

TCP will collect the segments and forward them to the application layer where the SEQ numbers will be processed and a retransmit request will occur for the entire packet.

Question 24

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5’s routing table?

Options:

A.

Route learned from router R1.

B.

Route learned from router R2.

C.

Router learned from router R3.

D.

Route learned from router R4.

Question 25

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Next-hop

D.

Cost

Question 26

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

Question 27

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

136.160.17.192/29

136.160.17.200/29

136.160.17.208/29

136.160.17.216/29

Options:

A.

136.160.17.128/25

B.

136.160.17.192/26

C.

136.160.17.192/27

D.

136.160.17.192/28

Question 28

Which bit pattern represents a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0?

Options:

A.

11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000

B.

11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000

C.

11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000

D.

11111111.11111111.00000000.00000000

Question 29

A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the host address range of the fourth subnetwork?

Options:

A.

208.40.224.17 – 208.40.224.30

B.

208.40.224.33 – 208.40.224.46

C.

208.40.224.49 – 208.40.224.62

D.

208.40.224.65 – 208.40.224.78

Question 30

Which of the following egress interfaces is used to forward a packet with destination IP address 140.10.0.110?

Options:

A.

System interface

B.

Interface “toC1”

C.

Interface “toP1”

D.

Interface “toP2”

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Unique network addressing scheme to identify hosts globally

B.

Orderly access to the transmission medium

C.

Routing protocols for path determination

D.

End-to-end forwarding of datagrams

Question 32

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact

flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

CLI

C.

Memory

D.

File

Question 33

Which of the following is TRUE regarding routers R2 and R3 in the pictured MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Router R2 pushes labels for LSP A, and R3 swaps labels for LSP A.

B.

Router R2 swaps labels for LSP A, and R3 pops labels for LSP A.

C.

Router R2 and R3 swap labels for LSP A and LSP B.

D.

Router R2 and R3 push labels for LSP A and LSP B, respectively.

Question 34

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor on a Nokia 7750 SR stores the runtime image and the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SF 1

B.

SF 2

C.

SF 3

D.

Both CF1 and CF2

Question 35

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.2.0/24 installed in router 1's routing table?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

Question 36

How do ATM and Frame-Relay protocols differentiate multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?

Options:

A.

They use virtual circuits to create a logical separation of traffic.

B.

They use subnetting to create a logical separation of traffic.

C.

They use VLANs to create a logical separation of traffic.

D.

They use IP header information to create a logical separation of traffic.

Question 37

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Question 38

Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

Options:

A.

Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B.

Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C.

Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D.

Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

Question 39

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

Options:

A.

A physical interface address.

B.

A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

C.

May have any prefix value.

D.

A management IP address.

Question 40

Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?

Options:

A.

Provides an universal addressing scheme

B.

Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.

C.

Provides reliable data transfers.

D.

Provides a physical interface to the network.

Question 41

The IANA is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Intra-city ISP traffic

B.

Allocation of the global IP address space

C.

Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic

D.

Allocating North American IP addresses

Question 42

You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view this information?

Options:

A.

view tree

B.

tree

C.

info detail

D.

info

Question 43

Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

Options:

A.

Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.

B.

Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.

C.

Maps a private address to a well known port number.

D.

Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

Question 44

As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

Options:

A.

Host A and B will generate a jam signal.

B.

Listening hosts will request retransmission.

C.

Host A or B will retry the transmission.

D.

A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

Question 45

Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to all devices who are members of a specific group?

Options:

A.

Anycast.

B.

Multicast.

C.

Broadcast.

D.

Unicast.

Question 46

What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

Options:

A.

Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.

B.

Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.

C.

Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer 2 networks.

D.

Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

Question 47

Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

Options:

A.

IBM.

B.

US Military.

C.

Nokia.

D.

NASA.

E.

Bell Labs

Question 48

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Question 49

Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

Options:

A.

The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

B.

Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

C.

The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.

D.

The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

Question 50

A Class C network is defined by a:

Options:

A.

32-bit network prefix.

B.

24-bit network prefix.

C.

16-bit network.

D.

8-bit network.

Question 51

Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two.)?

Options:

A.

Ethernet.

B.

Token-Ring.

C.

SONET/SDH.

D.

E1 carrier.

E.

PPP

Question 52

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

Options:

A.

Same host numbers.

B.

Same IP address.

C.

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.

Same network prefix.

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Demo: 52 questions
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