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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

Demo: 81 questions
Total 272 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

Question 2

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

Question 3

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 4

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Question 5

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Options:

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Question 6

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Question 7

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 8

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Question 9

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Question 10

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

Question 11

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Question 12

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 13

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Question 14

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 16

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Question 17

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

Question 18

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

Question 19

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 20

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Question 21

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Options:

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

Question 22

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

Question 23

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

Options:

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Question 24

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 25

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 26

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

Question 27

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

Question 28

What do you mean by “Having to say NO”..?

Options:

A.

No, the problem is not with testers

B.

No, the software is not ready for production

C.

Both a & b

D.

None of the above

Question 29

The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.

i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.

ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.

iii. Designing the test environment set-up.

iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.

v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.

Which statement below is TRUE?

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

B.

(i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

C.

(i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.

D.

(i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

Question 30

To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

Options:

A.

Stub

B.

Driver

C.

Proxy

D.

None of the above

Question 31

Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

Options:

A.

Variance from programming standards.

B.

A defect in middleware.

C.

Memory leaks.

D.

Regression defects.

Question 32

Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?

(i) V-model

(ii) Rapid Application Development model

(iii) Waterfall model

(iv) Agile development model

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 33

Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?

Options:

A.

Champion.

B.

Author.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Custodian.

Question 34

Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Options:

A.

Statement Coverage

B.

Pole Coverage

C.

Condition Coverage

D.

Path Coverage

Question 35

Incidents would not be raised against

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Documentation

C.

Test cases

D.

Improvements suggested by users

Question 36

Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

Options:

A.

That you have tested every statement in the program

B.

That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program

C.

That you have tested every IF statement in the program

D.

That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Question 37

Fault Masking is:

Options:

A.

Error condition hiding another error condition

B.

Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

C.

Masking a fault by developer

D.

Masking a fault by a tester

Question 38

Maintenance testing is:

Options:

A.

updating tests when the software has changed

B.

testing a released system that has been changed

C.

testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

D.

testing to maintain business advantage

Question 39

Faults found by users are due to..?

Options:

A.

Poor quality software

B.

Poor software and poor testing

C.

Bad luck

D.

Insufficient time for testing

Question 40

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?

(i) Executing component integration tests.

(ii) Static analysis.

(iii) Setting up the test environment.

(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 41

What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites ..?

Options:

A.

Interaction between html pages

B.

Performance on the client side

C.

Security aspects

D.

All of the above

Question 42

What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Options:

A.

To identify how many tests to design.

B.

To identify when to start testing.

C.

To identify when to stop testing.

D.

To identify who will carry out the test execution.

Question 43

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Options:

A.

an error

B.

a fault

C.

a failure

D.

a defect

Question 44

Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

C.

Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.

D.

Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

Question 45

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Options:

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

Question 46

Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Options:

A.

Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.

B.

Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

C.

It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.

D.

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.

Question 47

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

Options:

A.

Correction of defects during the development phase.

B.

Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C.

Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D.

Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

Question 48

A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of failure = 20%; impact value = £100,000

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%; impact value = £150,000

C.

Likelihood of failure = 1%; impact value = £500,000

D.

Likelihood of failure = 2%; impact value = £200,000

Question 49

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

They can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.

B.

They can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.

C.

They can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.

D.

They can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

Question 50

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

Options:

A.

When the code is complete.

B.

When the design is complete.

C.

When the software requirements have been approved.

D.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Question 51

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.

B.

Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

Question 52

Given the Following program IF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

Question 53

How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?

Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

Options:

A.

2 Test Cases

B.

3 Test Cases

C.

4 Test Cases

D.

Not achievable

Question 54

Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?

(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.

(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.

(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.

(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(i) and (iii)

Question 55

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Options:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

Question 56

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 57

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Question 58

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 59

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Question 60

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

Question 61

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

Question 62

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

Question 63

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Question 64

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Options:

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Question 65

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

Question 66

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

Question 67

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 68

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

Question 69

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Question 70

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

Question 71

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Question 72

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

Question 73

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Question 74

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 75

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

Question 76

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Question 77

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

Question 78

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

Question 79

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Question 80

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

Question 81

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

Demo: 81 questions
Total 272 questions