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iSQI CTAL-TM_Syll2012 ISTQB® Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012] Exam Practice Test

Demo: 33 questions
Total 130 questions

ISTQB® Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012] Questions and Answers

Question 1

Reviews

Which of the following factors could negatively influence a review?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Include people with the adequate level of knowledge, both technical and procedural

B.

Include people who are detail-oriented and scrupulous at finding issues

C.

Include as many people as possible in order to have more viewpoints about possible problems on the item under review

D.

Include people able to contribute to a clear, thoughtful, constructive and objective discussion

Question 2

Reviews

You are the Test Manager of a project that adopts a V-model with four formal levels of testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance testing.

On this project reviews have been conducted for each development phase prior to testing, which is to say that reviews of requirements, functional specification, high-level design, low-level design and code have been performed prior to testing.

Assume that no requirements defects have been reported after the release of the product.

Which TWO of the following metrics do you need in order to evaluate the requirements reviews in terms of phase containment effectiveness?

Number of correct responses: 2

K32 credits

Options:

A.

Number of defects found during the requirements review

B.

Total number of defects attributable to requirements found during unit, integration, system and acceptance testing

C.

Total number of defects found during functional specification review, high-level design review, low-level design review, code review, unit testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing

D.

Time to conduct the requirements review

E.

Total number of defects attributable to requirements, found during functional specification review, high-level design review, low-level design review, code review, unit testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing

Question 3

Reviews

Consider the following list of statements about audits and management reviews:

I. Audits are usually more effective than management reviews at finding defects

II. Audits and management reviews have the same main goals, the only difference is related to the roles and level of formality

III. A typical outcome of an audit includes observations and recommendations, corrective actions and a pass/fail assessment

IV. An audit is not the appropriate mechanism to use at the code review in order to detect defects prior to dynamic testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

I. and III. are true; II. and IV. are false;

B.

II. and III are true; I. and IV. are false;

C.

III. and IV. are true; I and II are false;

D.

I, III and IV are true; II. is false;

Question 4

Reviews

You are a Test Manager working for a software organization where reviews have never been applied. After a meeting with your managers examining a business case for reviews, (including their costs, benefits, and potential issues), the management finally decides to adopt formal reviews for future projects.

You have been given a budget that you have spent to provide training in the review process and to introduce the review process on a pilot project.

On that pilot project the introduction of reviews has been very positive in terms of positive involvement from all the participants. All the reviews applied to different documents have been very effective for their purposes (especially at revealing defects).

Which of the following answers describes an important success factor for the introduction of formal reviews which is missing in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

Options:

A.

Management support

B.

Participant support

C.

Definition and use of metrics to measure the ROI (Return On Investment)

D.

Training in the review process

Question 5

During the follow-up phase the following conditions are checked:

X1. The code has been completely reviewed

X2. All the identified defects have been correctly fixed and the modified code has been compiled successfully and run through all the static analyzers used by the project without warnings and errors

X3. The modified code is available under the configuration management system with a new version number for the specified CI

If these conditions are fulfilled then the review process terminates.

Which of the following characteristics of a formal review is missing in this description?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Defined entry and exit criteria

B.

Checklists to be used by the reviewers

C.

Deliverables such as reports, evaluation sheets or other review summary sheets

D.

Metrics for reporting on the review effectiveness, efficiency, and progress

Question 6

People Skills – Team Composition

Assume you are managing the system testing execution phase of a project.

The system test execution period for that project is scheduled for eighteen weeks and the release date is scheduled at the end of system testing.

During the sixth week of system test execution, at the staff meeting, the project manager informs you that the project deadlines are changed and the release date that is only three weeks ahead.

This new release will not allow the completion of the system tests. Suppose also that you have followed a risk-driven test approach for this project.

Which of the following statements represents the worst way to lead your test team in the next three weeks?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Neglect your management activities and work side-by-side with your test team executing tests

B.

Considering the executed tests, you should reduce the test coverage back on the risk analysis and adjust downward the priority of the associated risk items

C.

Convince all the people of your test team that each of them is an important and needed member, and that their contribution is fundamental to the success of the team

D.

Favor and encourage a proactive attitude where people ask for new tasks as soon as they finish their current tasks

Question 7

People Skills – Team Composition

Consider the following analysis of testing skills performed on four people: Alex, Robert, John and Mark (all the skills have been rated on an ascending scale: The higher the score, the better the skill):

Which of these people, based on this analysis, would you expect to be most suitable to work specifically as test designer?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

Options:

A.

Alex

B.

Roberta

C.

John

D.

Mark

Question 8

You are using this skills assessment spreadsheet in order to define a training development plan for your test team.

Your objective is to fill the skill gaps by having at least a team member rated as an expert for each skill identified for the “technical expertise” and “testing skills” sections, and with the ability to train the other team members.

Considering the budget constraints you can send only one person to a training course.

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers would you expect to be the best option to achieve your objective?

Number of correct responses: 1

K43 credits

Options:

A.

Send Robert to a performance testing training course

B.

Send Alex to a performance testing training course

C.

Send John to a performance testing training course

D.

Send Mark to a test automation training course

Question 9

People Skills – Team Composition

Which of the following would you expect to be most likely an example of a demotivating factor for testers?

Number of correct responses: 2

K21 credit

Options:

A.

The management asks the testers to be kept informed about the intensity, quality and results of testing

B.

The testers’ recommendations to improve the system or its testability are adopted by the development team

C.

The same regressions tests are manually executed by the same testers, for every product release, without regression test tools

D.

The testers are assessed on whether and how often they detect important and critical failures

E.

Test quality is measured by counting the number of customer/user reported problems.

Question 10

People Skills – Team Composition

An agile development team decides to hire a tester who has always worked:

- in independent test teams, reporting the problems found in a defect tracking system

- in safety-critical projects, with a stronger focus on the quality of the product than on time and budget.

This agile team is focused on short-term goals to get the product released on time and within budget.

Which of the following answers would you expect to be most likely true in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Agile teams like the presence of a tester in their teams and the tester will be able to adapt to the new context without any issue

B.

The developers will immediately follow the guidelines described by the tester

C.

The tester can continue to report the problems found in a defect tracking system and be more focused on the quality than on time and budget constraints

D.

The tester’s mission could be to verify adherence to requirements, instead of reporting formally the problems in a defect tracking system

Question 11

Test Tools and Automation

After a selection process you have selected a test management tool that is going be introduced in your organization and used by your test team in a pilot project.

You have already identified the member of your test team who will be the administrator of the tool, since he/she has a significant experience with the administration of test management tools and so he/she is able to make effective and efficient up-front decisions about "how" the tool will be used. You have also developed a training plan for the other members of your test team.

In collaboration with the administrator of the tool you have also devised standard ways of managing, storing and maintaining the tool and its assets including backup/restore procedures.

You have also analyzed standard formats supported by the tool (CSV, XLS, XML, etc.) to export, import and archive all the information managed by the tool itself (requirements, test case specifications, test plans etc.) for compliance with the most important test management tools, in order to minimize the impacts of migrating this information to a new tool that could replace the existing one in the future.

Which of the following phases in the lifecycle of the new tool has NOT been adequately considered in this description?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Support and maintenance

C.

Evolution

D.

Retirement

Question 12

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are a Test Manager involved in system testing of a CRM application for a Pay-TV company. Currently the application is able to support a proper number of users assuring the required responsiveness. Since the business is expected to grow, you have been asked to evaluate the ability of the application to grow to support more users while maintaining the same responsiveness.

Which of the following tools would you expect to be the most useful at performing this evaluation?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Coverage tools

B.

Test management tools

C.

Static analysis tools

D.

Performance tools

Question 13

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are managing a test automation project for a mission-critical system.

Because vendor provided tools and open source solutions don't meet the needs of this project, you ask your test team to develop a custom automation framework.

Which of the following management issues associated to the development of this custom automation framework is least likely to manage?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Proper testing for the custom automation framework must be performed

B.

The custom automation framework will require an adequate documentation

C.

The changes to the custom automation framework should be communicated to all external users of this tool under the GNU license

D.

The custom automation framework will need proper maintenance

Question 14

Test Tools and Automation

In your organization the following tools of the same vendor are currently in use: a requirements management tool, a test management tool and a bug tracking tool.

You are the Test Manager.

You are currently evaluating a test automation tool of the same vendor (to complete the vendor's tool suite) against an interesting open-source test automation tool under the GNU GPL (General Public License).

There are no initial costs associated to that open-source tool.

Which of the following statements associated to the selection of the open-source tool is correct in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

The open-source tool can be modified but only if the community of developers of that tool gives you the formal permission to modify it

B.

There are no initial costs for the open-source tool but you should carefully consider the costs associated to the integration with the existing tools and also evaluate the recurring costs

C.

There are no initial costs for the open-source tool because open-source tools are usually low-quality, while vendor tools have always a better quality than the corresponding open-source tools

D.

The open-source tool can be modified but it can’t be distributed further in any way

Question 15

Test Tools and Automation

Assume you are the Test Manager in charge of independent testing for avionics applications.

You are in charge of testing for a project to implement three different CSCI (Computer Software Configuration Item):

- a BOOT-X CSCI that must be certified at level B of the DO-178B standard

- a DIAG-X CSCI that must be certified at level C of the DO-178B standard

- a DRIV-X CSCI that must be certified at level A of the DO-178B standard

These are three different software modules written in C language to run on a specific hardware platform.

You have been asked to select a single code coverage tool to perform the mandatory code coverage measurements, in order to meet the structural coverage criteria prescribed by the DO-178B standard. This tool must be qualified as a verification tool under DO-178B.

Since there are significant budget constraints to purchase this tool, you are evaluating an open-source tool that is able to provide different types of code coverage. This tool meets perfectly your technical needs in terms of the programming language and the specific hardware platform (it supports also the specific C-compiler).

The source code of the tool is available.

Your team could easily customize the tool to meet the project needs. This tool is not qualified as a verification tool under the DO-178B.

Which of the following are the three main concerns related to that open-source tool selection?

Number of correct responses: 3

K43 credits (2 credits out of 3 credits correct, 1 credit point)

Options:

A.

Does the tool support all the types of code coverage required from the three levels A, B, C of the DO-178B standard?

B.

Does the tool have a good general usability?

C.

What are the costs to qualify the tool as a verification tool under the DO-178B?

D.

Is the installation procedure of the tool easy?

E.

Does the tool require a system with more than 4GB of RAM memory?

F.

Is the licensing scheme of the tool compatible with the confidentiality needs of the avionics company?

Question 16

Defect Management

Consider a defect report and assume that a part of its lifecycle includes the following states:

New: Is the initial state

Working: Means that the developers are addressing the defect in order to produce a fix for the defect

Clarification: Means that the developers need more information from the tester to address the defect and produce a fix for the defect and the tester is working to provide this information to the developers

Verification: Means that a fix for the defect has been produced and the tester is running the adequate tests to verify whether the fix solves the defect

Closed: is the final state

Which of the following answers represents an invalid sequence of states that can’t lead the bug report to the “Closed” state?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

New, Working, Verification, Working, Clarification, Working, Verification, Closed

B.

New, Working, Clarification, Working, Verification, Closed

C.

New, Working, Verification, Working, Clarification, Working, Closed

D.

New, Working, Verification, Closed

Question 17

Defect Management

Assume you are working on a defect management process to be used by a software organization to track the current status of the defects reports for several projects.

When a defect is found for investigation a defect report is created in “Opened” state that is the unique initial state. The defect report status has also a unique finale state that is the “Closed” state.

The following state transition diagram describes the states of this defect management process:

where only the initial (“Opened”) and final (“Closed”) states are indicated while the remaining states (V, W, X, Y, Z) have yet to be named.

Which of the following assignments would you expect to best complete the defect management process?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

Options:

A.

V=Rejected , W=Corrected , X=Validated, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Assigned

B.

V=Assigned, W=Validated , X=Corrected, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Rejected

C.

V=Assigned, W=Corrected , X=Validated, Y=Re-Opened, Z=Rejected

D.

V= Corrected, W=Assigned, X=Validated, Y=Corrected, Z=Rejected

Question 18

Defect Management

Which of the following information would you expect to be the most useful to perform a defect clustering analysis?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

The trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution

B.

The defect component information

C.

The lifecycle phase in which the defect has been introduced

D.

The defect removal efficiency information

Question 19

Defect Management

During the system testing phase a tester from your test team observes a failure in the system under test and he/she decides to create an incident report. The incident report is currently in a “new” state, indicating it needs to be investigated.

Which THREE of the following information items can’t yet be present in the incident report?

Number of correct responses: 3

K32 credits (2 credits out of 3 credits correct, 1 credit point)

Options:

A.

The type of defect that caused the failure

B.

The actual and the expected result highlighting the failure

C.

The lifecycle phase in which the defect has been introduced

D.

What really caused the failure (actual cause)

E.

Steps to reproduce the failure, including screenshots, database dumps and logs where applicable

Question 20

Your testing team has just received the test conditions for a new project. You are conducting Test Design activities for this project. Your team feels that it would be beneficial to create high-level test cases.

What should they do concurrently with creating these test cases? [2]

Options:

A.

Create the test plan.

B.

Create the test automation scripts.

C.

Create the test summary report for the test cases you are creating.

D.

Create the traceability between the test cases and the requirements.

Question 21

Testing Process

Which of the following statements describing the consequences of specifying test conditions at a detailed level is NOT true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

In an environment where the test basis is continuously changing, it is recommended to specify test conditions at a detailed level in order to achieve a better maintainability

B.

The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can be effective when no formal requirements or other development work products are available

C.

The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can require the implementation of an adequate level of formality across the team

D.

For system testing, the specification of test conditions at a detailed level, carried out early in the project as soon as the test basis is established, can contribute to defect prevention

Question 22

Testing Process

The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:

EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).

EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.

EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: “C” (critical defect) and “NC” (non-critical defect). No known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.

Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases

B.

A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the defect tracking system

C.

A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the defect tracking system

D.

The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool

Question 23

The following is the unique “critical” quality risk item that has been identified:

CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified:

TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes

TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order

TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.

Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the REQ-SEL-4 requirement?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

Options:

A.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed

B.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed

C.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles" message is displayed

D.

Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles

Question 24

The following is the unique “critical” quality risk item that has been identified:

CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified:

TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes

TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order

TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user

What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2 exit criteria?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

Options:

A.

4

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

Question 25

You are following a risk-based testing strategy. The test execution time is very limited. Assume that all the product risk items require more or less the same level of test effort.

Which of the following answers describes the best execution schedule in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K33 credits

Options:

A.

1- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents

3- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card

4- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card

B.

1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card

2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents

3- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card

4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

C.

1- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card

2- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card

3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents

4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

D.

1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card

2- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card

3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents

4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

Question 26

Test Management

Assume you are managing the system testing phase of a project.

The system test execution period is scheduled to twenty weeks.

All tests are manual tests. You are following a risk-driven test approach.

During the last staff meeting the project manager tells you new deadlines that will not allow completion of all the system tests.

Which of the following would you expect to be the best way to respond to this situation?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Prioritize executing the tests for the highest product risks and track these risks

B.

Remove testers from your test team, so that they can be assigned to other projects

C.

Automate all remaining tests

D.

No action is needed, test as much as possible in the remaining time period

Question 27

Test Management

You are the Test Manager of a new project that will have three formal levels of testing: unit, integration and system testing. The testing strategy you decide to adopt a blend of risk-based testing and reactive testing strategies.

Which of the following answers describes the most consistent example of implementation of this test strategy during the execution of the system tests?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Your test team executes exploratory tests following a session-based test management approach throughout the system test phase

B.

Your test team executes system tests under the guidance of a sample of users throughout the system test phase

C.

Your test team executes scripted tests designed and implemented before the execution of the system test phase, to cover the identified product risks. It also performs exploratory testing sessions throughout the system test phase

D.

Your test team autonomously performs some exploratory testing sessions and, at the very end of the system testing phase, it also executes more system tests under the guidance of a sample of users

Question 28

Test Management

Which of the following answers describes a factor that may reduce the effort spent when using distributed test teams without negatively affecting system quality?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

Difficulties in communication between the distributed test teams due to time zone differences

B.

With several distributed test teams, every team assumes that some test conditions are covered by other teams but actually no one covers them

C.

With several distributed test teams, two or more teams assume some test conditions are covered by their team and their team alone. But all of the teams actually cover them

D.

With several distributed test teams, all of the distributed test teams use a single unified test dashboard

Question 29

Test Management

Assume you are currently working on a project developing a system where functional requirements are very well specified. Unfortunately non-functional requirements do almost not exist.

You are the Test Manager. You have to choose a technique for test selection that allows testing of non-functional characteristics, especially reliability.

Which of the following techniques for test selection do you expect being most useful in this scenario?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

A model-based technique based on the creation of operational profiles

B.

Ambiguity reviews

C.

Test condition analysis

D.

Cause-effect graphing

Question 30

Test Management

Assume you have some data related to confirmation testing during system testing of a past project.

In that project 240 bug reports have been opened once, 80 were opened twice, 10 were opened three times and no bug reports have been opened more than three times.

You estimate that a bug report, which has failed its confirmation test, costs, on average, 3 person-hours.

Which of the following statements correctly describe the value of these confirmatory testing activities based on cost of quality?

Number of correct responses: 1

K32 credits

Options:

A.

300 person-hours have been spent on the project during the system testing phase, because of the failed confirmation tests and this cost belongs to the costs of internal failure

B.

340 person-hours have been spent on the project during the system testing phase, because of the failed confirmation tests and this cost belongs to the costs of external failure

C.

340 person-hours have been spent on the project during the system testing phase, because of the failed confirmation tests and this cost belongs to the costs of internal failure

D.

300 person-hours have been spent on the project during the system testing phase, because of the failed confirmation tests and this cost belongs to the costs of detection

Question 31

Improving the Testing Process

Which of the following statements about the TMMi test process improvement model is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

In TMMi all the process areas at lower levels must be 75% complete by achieving specific and generic goals in order to claim the higher level

B.

TMMi provides an approach for test process improvement such as the IDEAL (Initiating, Diagnosing, Establishing, Acting and Learning) model

C.

TMMi has a staged architecture for process improvement with seven maturity levels

D.

At TMMi level 1 testing is chaotic without a defined process, and it is often seen as the same as debugging

Question 32

Improving the Testing Process

Consider the following statements describing the importance of improving the test process:

I. Test process improvement is important because being focused only on the test process it can provide recommendations to improve the test process itself, but it can’t indicate or suggest improvement to areas of the development process

II. Test process improvement is important because it is much more effective than software process improvement to improve the quality of a software system

III. Test process improvement is important because several process improvement models (STEP, TPI Next, TMMi) have been developed over the years

IV. Test process improvement is important because every organization, regardless of the context, should always achieve the maximum level of maturity of testing described in the test improvement models such as TMMi

Which of the following answers is correct?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

I. and IV. are true; II. and III. are false

B.

I., II., III. and IV are false

C.

I., II. and III are true; IV. is false

D.

I., II. and III. are false; IV. is true

Question 33

Improving the Testing Process

Which of the following statements about the STEP test process improvement model is true?

Number of correct responses: 1

K21 credit

Options:

A.

In the STEP model, tests validate the requirements and use cases when they are developed

B.

The STEP model stresses defect detection and demonstration of capability, whereas the defect prevention is a secondary potential goal of testing

C.

The STEP model assures that the system requirements specification and the test design specification processes don't overlap

D.

In the STEP model, testware design occurs after coding

Demo: 33 questions
Total 130 questions