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Isaca IT-Risk-Fundamentals IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Exam Practice Test

IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When analyzing l&T-related risk, an enterprise defines likelihood and impact on a scale from 1 to 5, and the scale of impact also defines a range expressed in monetary terms. Which of the following risk analysis approaches has been adopted?

Options:

A.

Qualitative approach

B.

Quantitative approach

C.

Hybrid approach

Question 2

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a good risk culture?

Options:

A.

The enterprise learns from negative outcomes and treats the root cause.

B.

The enterprise enables discussions of risk and facts within the risk management functions.

C.

The enterprise places a strong emphasis on the positive and negative elements of risk.

Question 3

Why is risk identification important to an organization?

Options:

A.

It provides a review of previous and likely threats to the enterprise.

B.

It ensures risk is recognized and the impact to business objectives is understood.

C.

It enables the risk register to detail potential impacts to an enterprise's business processes.

Question 4

Which of the following is important to ensure when validating the results of a frequency analysis?

Options:

A.

Estimates used during the analysis were based on reliable and historical data.

B.

The analysis was conducted by an independent third party.

C.

The analysis method has been fully documented and explained.

Question 5

Which of the following is MOST important to include when developing a business case for a specific risk response?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders responsible for the risk response plan

B.

Communication and status reporting of the related risk

C.

A justification for the expense of the investment

Question 6

Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize potential attack vectors on the enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Implement network log monitoring.

B.

Disable any unneeded ports.

C.

Provide annual cybersecurity awareness training.

Question 7

Which of the following is considered an exploit event?

Options:

A.

An attacker takes advantage of a vulnerability

B.

Any event that is verified as a security breach

C.

The actual occurrence of an adverse event

Question 8

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The KRIs can be added to the risk dashboard report.

B.

KRIs can be applied to multiple risk events.

C.

Each KRI is linked to a specific risk event.

Question 9

Which of the following MUST be consistent with the defined criteria when establishing the risk management context as it relates to calculation of risk?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Formulas and methods for combining impact and likelihood

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 10

When selecting a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the KRI:

Options:

A.

supports established KPIs.

B.

produces multiple and varied results.

C.

is a reliable predictor of the risk event.

Question 11

When evaluating the current state of controls, which of the following will provide the MOST comprehensive analysis of enterprise processes, incidents, logs, and the threat environment?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA) assessment

B.

IT operations and management evaluation

C.

Third-party assurance review

Question 12

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

To determine the best course of action based on the threat and potential impact

B.

To improve the knowledge of deficient control conditions within IT systems

C.

To reduce the amount of effort to identify and catalog new vulnerabilities

Question 13

As part of the control monitoring process, frequent control exceptions are MOST likely to indicate:

Options:

A.

excessive costs associated with use of a control.

B.

misalignment with business priorities.

C.

high risk appetite throughout the enterprise.

Question 14

What is the PRIMARY purpose of providing timely and accurate risk information to key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To establish risk appetite

B.

To facilitate risk-based decision making

C.

To develop effective key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 15

Which of the following is a KEY contributing component for determining risk rankings to direct risk response?

Options:

A.

Cost of mitigating controls

B.

Severity of a vulnerability

C.

Maturity of risk management processes

Question 16

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when developing effective risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Risk events that affect both financial and strategic objectives

B.

Previously materialized risk events impacting competitors

C.

Real and relevant potential risk events

Question 17

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure when preparing a risk report?

Options:

A.

The risk report should be published for transparency and enterprise risk awareness.

B.

The risk report should be uniform for all stakeholders to ensure consistency.

C.

The risk report should be customized to stakeholder expectations.

Question 18

Which of the following BEST supports a risk-aware culture within an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Risk issues and negative outcomes are only shared within a department.

B.

The enterprise risk management (ERM) function manages all risk-related activities.

C.

Risk is identified, documented, and discussed to make business decisions.

Question 19

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a cost-benefit analysis as part of a risk response business case?

Options:

A.

To determine if the reduction in risk is sufficient to justify the cost of implementing the response

B.

To determine the future resource requirements and funding needed to monitor the related risk

C.

To calculate the total return on investment (ROI) over time and benefit to enterprise risk management (ERM)

Question 20

Which of the following is the MOST important information for determining the critical path of a project?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Specified end dates

Question 21

To address concerns of increased online skimming attacks, an enterprise is training the software development team on secure software development practices. This is an example of which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk mitigation

Question 22

Which of the following occurs earliest in the risk response process?

Options:

A.

Developing risk response plans

B.

Prioritizing risk responses

C.

Analyzing risk response options

Question 23

Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability analysis

B.

Controls gap analysis

C.

Penetration testing

Question 24

An enterprise has initiated a project to implement a risk-mitigating control. Which of the following would provide senior management with the MOST useful information on the project's status?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk heat map

C.

Risk report

Question 25

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an enterprise to avoid an absolute prohibition on risk?

Options:

A.

It may not be understood by executive management.

B.

It may lead to ineffective use of resources.

C.

It may not provide adequate support for budget increases.

Question 26

Which of the following risk analysis methods gathers different types of potential risk ideas to be validated and ranked by an individual or small groups during interviews?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming model

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Monte Cado analysis

Question 27

What is the PRIMARY benefit of using generic technology terms in IT risk assessment reports to management?

Options:

A.

Simplicity in translating risk reports into other languages

B.

Clarity on the proper interpretation of reported risk

C.

Ease of promoting risk awareness with key stakeholders

Question 28

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with IT hardware or devices?

Options:

A.

Loss of source code

B.

Lack of interoperability

C.

Sniffing attack

Question 29

Applying statistical analysis methods to I&T risk scenarios is MOST appropriate when:

Options:

A.

quantifiable historical data is available for detailed reviews.

B.

risk management professionals are unfamiliar with qualitative methods.

C.

members of senior management have advanced mathematical knowledge.

Question 30

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk for the continued existence of an enterprise?

Options:

A.

When its risk appetite and tolerance are reviewed annually

B.

When its actual risk eventually exceeds organizational risk appetite

C.

When its risk appetite and actual risk exceed its risk capacity

Question 31

Which risk response option has been adopted when an enterprise outsources disaster recovery activities to leverage the skills and expertise of a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk transfer

Question 32

Which of the following would be considered a cyber-risk?

Options:

A.

A system that does not meet the needs of users

B.

A change in security technology

C.

Unauthorized use of information

Question 33

Which of the following statements on an organization's cybersecurity profile is BEST suited for presentation to management?

Options:

A.

The probability of a cyber attack varies between unlikely and very likely.

B.

Risk management believes the likelihood of a cyber attack is not imminent.

C.

Security measures are configured to minimize the risk of a cyber attack.

Question 34

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason to perform a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions

B.

To aggregate risk in a meaningful way for a comprehensive view of enterprise risk

C.

To map the value of benefits that can be directly compared to the cost of a risk response

Question 35

An enterprise is currently experiencing an unacceptable 8% processing error rate and desires to manage risk by establishing a policy that error rates cannot exceed 5%. In addition, management wants to be alerted when error rates meet or exceed 4%. The enterprise should set a key performance indicator (KPI) metric at which of the following levels?

Options:

A.

5%

B.

4%

C.

8%