Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the impact of a successful breach through a remote access solution?
Compartmentalizing resource access
Regular testing of system backups
Monitoring and reviewing remote access logs
Regular physical and remote testing of the incident response plan
Compartmentalizing resource access is a security technique that divides a system or network into separate segments or zones with different levels of access and control, based on the sensitivity and value of the data or resources. Compartmentalizing resource access would most effectively reduce the impact of a successful breach through a remote access solution, as it would limit the scope and extent of the breach, and prevent unauthorized access to other segments or zones that contain more critical or sensitive data or resources. The other options are not as effective as compartmentalizing resource access in reducing the impact of a successful breach through a remote access solution. Regular testing of system backups is a security technique that verifies the availability and recoverability of data in case of a system failure or disaster, but it does not prevent or limit unauthorized access to data. Monitoring and reviewing remote access logs is a security technique that records and analyzes the activities and events related to remote access sessions, but it does not prevent or limit unauthorized access to data. Regular physical and remote testing of the incident response plan is a security technique that evaluates and improves the readiness and effectiveness of an organization’s response to security incidents, but it does not prevent or limit unauthorized access to data1, p. 91-92 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
An online retail company is trying to determine how to handle users’ data if they unsubscribe from marketing emails generated from the website. Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling personal data that has been restricted?
Encrypt users’ information so it is inaccessible to the marketing department.
Reference the privacy policy to see if the data is truly restricted.
Remove users’ information and account from the system.
Flag users’ email addresses to make sure they do not receive promotional information.
The best approach for handling personal data that has been restricted is to flag users’ email addresses to make sure they do not receive promotional information, because this will respect the users’ preferences and rights to opt out of marketing communications. This will also help the company comply with the data protection laws and regulations that require consent and transparency for sending marketing emails, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the CAN-SPAM Act12. The other options are not appropriate or sufficient for handling restricted data, because they may violate the users’ rights, expectations, or agreements, or cause operational issues for the company.
References:
Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the treatment of data within the scope of an organization's privacy policy?
Data protection impact assessment (DPIA)
Data flow diagram
Data classification
Data processing agreement
Data classification is the process of categorizing data according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality for the organization and the data subjects. Data classification has the greatest impact on the treatment of data within the scope of an organization’s privacy policy, as it determines the appropriate level of protection, access, retention, and disposal for each type of data. Data classification also helps to comply with the privacy principles and regulations, such as data minimization, purpose limitation, accuracy, security, and accountability.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 80
A technology company has just launched a mobile application tor tracking health symptoms_ This application is built on a mobile device technology stack that allows
users to share their location and details of their symptoms. Which of the following is the GREATEST privacy concern with collecting this data via mobile devices?
Client-side device ID
Data storage requirements
Encryption of key data elements
Data usage without consent
Which of the following features should be incorporated into an organization’s technology stack to meet privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects to control their personal data?
Providing system engineers the ability to search and retrieve data
Allowing individuals to have direct access to their data
Allowing system administrators to manage data access
Establishing a data privacy customer service bot for individuals
Any organization collecting information about EU residents is required to operate with transparency in collecting and using their personal information. Chapter III of the GDPR defines eight data subject rights that have become foundational for other privacy regulations around the world:
Right to access personal data. Data subjects can access the data collected on them.
One of the privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects is the right to access, which means that individuals have the right to obtain a copy of their personal data, as well as information about how their data is processed, by whom, for what purposes, and for how long. To meet this requirement, an organization’s technology stack should incorporate features that allow individuals to have direct access to their data, such as self-service portals, dashboards, or applications. This way, individuals can exercise their right to access without relying on intermediaries or manual processes, which can be inefficient, error-prone, or insecure. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 137
Which of the following should be done FIRST before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction?
Ensure data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on.
Encrypt the data while it is being migrated.
Conduct a penetration test of the hosted solution.
Assess the organization's exposure related to the migration.
The best answer is D. Assess the organization’s exposure related to the migration.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction, it should first assess its exposure related to the migration. This means that the organization should identify and evaluate the potential risks and benefits of moving its data to the cloud, taking into account the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations and implications of doing so.
Some of the factors that the organization should consider in its assessment are:
By conducting a thorough assessment of its exposure related to the migration, the organization can make an informed decision about whether to proceed with the migration or not, or under what conditions or modifications. The assessment can also help the organization to plan and implement appropriate measures and controls to mitigate or avoid any negative consequences and enhance or maximize any positive outcomes of the migration.
Ensuring data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on (A), encrypting the data while it is being migrated (B), and conducting a penetration test of the hosted solution © are all good practices to protect data privacy and security when migrating data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction. However they are not the first steps that should be done before the migration. They are more relevant during or after the migration process. They also do not address other aspects of exposure related to the migration, such as legal, regulatory, contractual, or ethical issues.
References:
What is the BEST way for an organization to maintain the effectiveness of its privacy breach incident response plan?
Require security management to validate data privacy security practices.
Involve the privacy office in an organizational review of the incident response plan.
Hire a third party to perform a review of data privacy processes.
Conduct annual data privacy tabletop exercises.
The best way for an organization to maintain the effectiveness of its privacy breach incident response plan is to conduct annual data privacy tabletop exercises. A data privacy tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s ability to respond to a privacy breach incident, such as a data breach, leak, or misuse. A data privacy tabletop exercise involves key stakeholders, such as the privacy office, the information security team, the legal counsel, the public relations team, etc., who role-play their actions and decisions based on the scenario. A data privacy tabletop exercise helps to evaluate and improve the organization’s privacy breach incident response plan, such as identifying gaps or weaknesses, validating roles and responsibilities, verifying procedures and protocols, assessing communication and coordination, etc. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 83
Which of the following is an example of data anonymization as a means to protect personal data when sharing a database?
The data is encrypted and a key is required to re-identify the data.
Key fields are hidden and unmasking is required to access to the data.
Names and addresses are removed but the rest of the data is left untouched.
The data is transformed such that re-identification is impossible.
Data anonymization is a method of protecting personal data by modifying or removing any information that can be used to identify an individual, either directly or indirectly, in a data set. Data anonymization aims to prevent the re-identification of the data subjects, even by the data controller or processor, or by using additional data sources or techniques. Data anonymization also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to respect the privacy rights and preferences of the data subjects.
The data is transformed such that re-identification is impossible is an example of data anonymization, as it involves applying irreversible techniques, such as aggregation, generalization, perturbation, or synthesis, to alter the original data in a way that preserves their utility and meaning, but eliminates their identifiability. For example, a database of customer transactions can be anonymized by replacing the names and addresses of the customers with random codes, and by adding noise or rounding to the amounts and dates of the transactions.
The other options are not examples of data anonymization, but of other methods of protecting personal data that do not guarantee the impossibility of re-identification. The data is encrypted and a key is required to re-identify the data is an example of data pseudonymization, which is a method of replacing direct identifiers with pseudonyms, such as codes or tokens, that can be linked back to the original data with a key or algorithm. Data pseudonymization does not prevent re-identification by authorized parties who have access to the key or algorithm, or by unauthorized parties who can break or bypass the encryption. Key fields are hidden and unmasking is required to access to the data is an example of data masking, which is a method of concealing or obscuring sensitive data elements, such as names or credit card numbers, with characters, symbols or blanks. Data masking does not prevent re-identification by authorized parties who have permission to unmask the data, or by unauthorized parties who can infer or guess the hidden data from other sources or clues. Names and addresses are removed but the rest of the data is left untouched is an example of data deletion, which is a method of removing direct identifiers from a data set. Data deletion does not prevent re-identification by using indirect identifiers, such as age, gender, occupation or location, that can be combined or matched with other data sources to re-establish the identity of the data subjects.
References:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use public key infrastructure (PRI) for protection against a man-in-the-middle attack?
It uses Transport Layer Security (TLS).
It provides a secure connection on an insecure network
It makes public key cryptography feasible.
It contains schemes for revoking keys.
Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system that enables the use of public key cryptography, which is a method of encrypting and authenticating data using a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. Public key cryptography can protect against man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, which are attacks where an attacker intercepts and modifies the communication between two parties. PKI makes public key cryptography feasible by providing a way to generate, distribute, verify, and revoke public keys. PKI also uses digital certificates, which are documents that bind a public key to an identity, and certificate authorities, which are trusted entities that issue and validate certificates. By using PKI, the parties can ensure that they are communicating with the intended recipient and that the data has not been tampered with by an attacker.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media?
Data encryption
Data sanitization
Data scrambling
Data masking
The best practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media is B. Data sanitization.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Data sanitization is the process of permanently and irreversibly erasing or destroying the data on a storage device or media, such as a hard drive, a USB drive, a CD/DVD, etc. Data sanitization ensures that the data cannot be recovered or reconstructed by any means, even by using specialized software or hardware tools. Data sanitization is also known as data wiping, data erasure, data destruction, or data disposal.
Data sanitization is the best practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it prevents unauthorized access, disclosure, theft, or misuse of the sensitive or confidential data that may be stored on the media. Data sanitization also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for data protection and privacy, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), etc.
There are different methods and techniques for data sanitization, depending on the type and format of the storage device or media. Some of the common methods are:
Data encryption (A) is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data encryption only transforms the data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a key or a password. However, if the key or password is lost, stolen, compromised, or guessed by an attacker, the data can still be decrypted and exposed. Data encryption is more suitable for protecting data in transit or at rest, but not for disposing data.
Data scrambling © is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data scrambling only rearranges the order of the bits or bytes of the data to make it appear random or meaningless. However, if the algorithm or pattern of scrambling is known or discovered by an attacker, the data can still be unscrambled and restored. Data scrambling is more suitable for obfuscating data for testing or debugging purposes, but not for disposing data.
Data masking (D) is not a good practice to protect data privacy when disposing removable backup media because it does not erase or destroy the data on the media. Data masking only replaces some parts of the data with fictitious or anonymized values to hide its true identity or meaning. However, if the original data is still stored somewhere else or if the masking technique is weak or reversible by an attacker, the data can still be unmasked and revealed. Data masking is more suitable for protecting data in use or in analysis, but not for disposing data.
References:
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to ensure privacy-related risk responses meet organizational objectives?
Integrating security and privacy control requirements into the development of risk scenarios
Prioritizing privacy-related risk scenarios as part of enterprise risk management ERM) processes
Using a top-down approach to develop privacy-related risk scenarios for the organization
Assigning the data protection officer accountability for privacy protection controls
Prioritizing privacy-related risk scenarios as part of ERM processes is the best way to ensure that the risk responses meet the organizational objectives, because it helps to align the privacy risk management with the overall strategic goals, values, and culture of the organization. ERM is a holistic approach to identify, assess, and manage risks across the organization, taking into account the interdependencies and trade-offs among different types of risks. By integrating privacy-related risk scenarios into the ERM processes, the organization can evaluate the potential impact and likelihood of privacy risks on its mission, vision, and performance, and prioritize the most significant ones for mitigation or acceptance. This can also help to allocate appropriate resources, assign clear roles and responsibilities, and monitor and report on the effectiveness of the risk responses.
References:
Which of the following is the best reason for a health organization to use desktop virtualization to implement stronger access control to systems containing patient records?
Limited functions and capabilities of a secured operating environment
Monitored network activities for unauthorized use
Improved data integrity and reduced effort for privacy audits
Unlimited functionalities and highly secured applications
The best reason for a health organization to use desktop virtualization to implement stronger access control to systems containing patient records is that it can improve data integrity and reduce effort for privacy audits. Desktop virtualization is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop environment that is hosted on a remote server, rather than on their local device. Desktop virtualization can enhance data privacy by providing stronger access control to systems containing patient records, such as requiring authentication, authorization, encryption, logging, etc. Desktop virtualization can also improve data integrity by ensuring that patient records are stored and processed in a centralized and secure location, rather than on multiple devices that may be vulnerable to loss, theft, damage, or corruption. Desktop virtualization can also reduce effort for privacy audits by simplifying the management and monitoring of data privacy compliance across different devices and locations. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 153
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to limit potential data exposure when implementing a new application?
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system.
Use only the data required by the application.
Encrypt all data used by the application.
Capture the application’s authentication logs.
The principle of data minimization states that personal data should be adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which they are processed. By using only the data required by the application, the organization can reduce the amount of data that is collected, stored, processed and potentially exposed. This can also help the organization comply with privacy laws and regulations that require data minimization, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA).
References:
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a data collection process is deemed to be a high-level risk?
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
Implement remediation actions to mitigate privacy risk.
Conduct a privacy Impact assessment (PIA).
Create a system of records notice (SORN).
The first thing to do when a data collection process is deemed to be a high-level risk is to conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA). A PIA is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of personal data processing operations on the privacy of individuals and the organization. A PIA helps to identify privacy risks and mitigation strategies at an early stage of the data collection process and ensures compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. A PIA also helps to demonstrate accountability and transparency to stakeholders and data subjects regarding how their personal data are collected, used, shared, stored, or deleted.
Performing a business impact analysis (BIA), implementing remediation actions to mitigate privacy risk, or creating a system of records notice (SORN) are also important steps for managing privacy risk, but they are not the first thing to do. Performing a BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the organization’s critical functions, processes, resources, or objectives. A BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and objectives for the organization in case of a disaster or crisis. Implementing remediation actions is a process of applying corrective or preventive measures to reduce or eliminate the privacy risks identified by the PIA or other methods. Remediation actions may include technical, organizational, or legal solutions, such as encryption, access control, consent management, or contractual clauses. Creating a SORN is a process of publishing a public notice that describes the existence and purpose of a system of records that contains personal data under the control of a federal agency. A SORN helps to inform the public about how their personal data are collected and maintained by the agency and what rights they have regarding their data.
References: Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) - European Commission, Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) | ICO, Privacy Impact Assessments | HHS.gov
Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the audit log of an application hosting personal data?
Server details of the hosting environment
Last user who accessed personal data
Application error events
Last logins of privileged users
The most important information to capture in the audit log of an application hosting personal data is the last user who accessed personal data. This is because the audit log is a record of the activities and events that occur within the application, such as user actions, system events, errors, or exceptions. The audit log helps to monitor and verify the compliance, security, and performance of the application, as well as to detect and investigate any incidents or anomalies. Capturing the last user who accessed personal data in the audit log helps to ensure the accountability and traceability of the data access, as well as to identify and prevent any unauthorized or inappropriate use, disclosure, or modification of personal data.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 147
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a highly effective privacy training program?
Members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy
Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy
No privacy incidents have been reported in the last year
HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization_
The best indication of a highly effective privacy training program is that members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, because this shows that the training program has successfully raised the awareness and knowledge of the workforce on the importance, principles and practices of data privacy, and how they can contribute to the organization’s privacy objectives and compliance. According to ISACA, one of the key elements of a privacy training program is to define and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the workforce in relation to data privacy1. Members of the workforce who understand their roles in protecting data privacy are more likely to follow the privacy policies and procedures, report any privacy incidents or issues, and support the privacy culture of the organization2. Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy, no privacy incidents have been reported in the last year, and HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization are not as reliable as members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, as they do not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the privacy training program, but rather the performance of other factors such as audit processes, incident management systems, or HR policies.
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when selecting a data sanitization method?
Risk tolerance
Implementation cost
Industry standards
Storage type
The first consideration when selecting a data sanitization method is the type of storage device that holds the data to be sanitized. Different types of storage devices have different characteristics and limitations that affect the effectiveness and feasibility of data sanitization methods. For example, magnetic media, such as hard disk drives (HDDs), can be sanitized by data degaussing, which is wiping data permanently by weakening the magnetic field1. However, data degaussing is not applicable to devices that use solid state drive (SSD) technology, since SSDs do not store data magnetically2. Therefore, the storage type determines which data sanitization methods are suitable and available for the data disposal process.
References:
What is the PRIMARY means by which an organization communicates customer rights as it relates to the use of their personal information?
Gaining consent when information is collected
Publishing a privacy notice
Mailing rights documentation to customers
Distributing a privacy rights policy
The primary means by which an organization communicates customer rights as it relates to the use of their personal information is publishing a privacy notice. A privacy notice is a document that informs the customers about how the organization collects, uses, shares, and protects their personal information, and what rights and choices they have regarding their data4. A privacy notice is a legal requirement under many data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), or the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA)5 . A privacy notice is also a good practice to demonstrate the organization’s commitment to transparency, accountability, and customer trust. References:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
To comply with consumer regulatory requirements
To establish privacy breach response procedures
To classify personal data
To understand privacy risks
The primary reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA) is to understand privacy risks associated with the collection, use, disclosure or retention of personal data. A PIA is a systematic process to identify and evaluate the potential privacy impacts of a system, project, program or initiative that involves personal data processing activities. A PIA helps to ensure that privacy risks are identified and mitigated before the implementation is executed. A PIA also helps to ensure compliance with privacy principles, laws and regulations, and alignment with customer expectations and preferences. The other options are not primary reasons to complete a PIA. To comply with consumer regulatory requirements may be a reason to complete a PIA, but it is not the primary reason, as consumer regulatory requirements may vary depending on the context and jurisdiction. To establish privacy breach response procedures may be an outcome of completing a PIA, but it is not the primary reason, as privacy breach response procedures are only one aspect of mitigating privacy risks. To classify personal data may be an activity that is part of completing a PIA, but it is not the primary reason, as personal data classification is only one aspect of understanding privacy risks1, p. 67 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that application hardening is included throughout the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
Require an annual internal audit of SDLC processes.
Include qualified application security personnel as part of the process.
Ensure comprehensive application security testing immediately prior to release.
Require an annual third-party audit of new client software solutions.
The best way to ensure that application hardening is included throughout the software development life cycle (SDLC) is to include qualified application security personnel as part of the process. Application hardening is the process of applying security measures and techniques to an application to reduce its attack surface, vulnerabilities, and risks. Application hardening should be integrated into every stage of the SDLC, from planning and design to development and testing to deployment and maintenance. Including qualified application security personnel as part of the process helps to ensure that application hardening is performed effectively and consistently, as well as to provide guidance, feedback, and support to the developers, testers, and project managers. The other options are not as effective or sufficient as including qualified application security personnel as part of the process, as they do not address the root cause of the lack of application hardening, which is the gap in skills and knowledge among the SDLC participants.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 131
Which of the following should an IT privacy practitioner review FIRST to understand where personal data is coming from and how it is used within the organization?
Data process flow diagrams
Data inventory
Data classification
Data collection standards
A data inventory is a comprehensive list of the data that an organization collects, processes, stores, transfers, and disposes of. It includes information such as the type, source, location, owner, purpose, and retention period of the data. A data inventory is essential for understanding where personal data is coming from and how it is used within the organization, as well as for complying with data privacy laws and regulations. A data inventory also helps to identify and mitigate data privacy risks and gaps.
References:
Which of the following principles is MOST important to apply when granting access to an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system that contains a significant amount of personal data?
Read-only access
Least privilege
Segregation of duties
Data minimization
The principle of least privilege is the most important principle to apply when granting access to an ERP system that contains a significant amount of personal data. The principle of least privilege states that users should only have the minimum level of access and permissions necessary to perform their legitimate tasks and functions, and no more. Applying the principle of least privilege helps to protect the privacy and security of the personal data in the ERP system, as it reduces the risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access, disclosure, modification, or deletion of the data. It also helps to comply with the privacy laws and regulations, such as the GDPR, that require data controllers and processors to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 132
Which of the following is MOST important when developing an organizational data privacy program?
Obtaining approval from process owners
Profiling current data use
Following an established privacy framework
Performing an inventory of all data
Following an established privacy framework is the most important step when developing an organizational data privacy program because it provides a structured and consistent approach to identify, assess, and manage privacy risks and compliance obligations. A privacy framework can also help to align the privacy program with the organization’s strategic goals, values, and culture, as well as to communicate and demonstrate the privacy program’s effectiveness to internal and external stakeholders. Some examples of established privacy frameworks are the NIST Privacy Framework, the ISO/IEC 27701:2019, and the AICPA Privacy Maturity Model.
References:
An organization has an initiative to implement database encryption to strengthen privacy controls. Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing database selection?
Database administration audit logs
Historical security incidents
Penetration test results
Asset classification scheme
The most useful information for prioritizing database selection for encryption is the asset classification scheme. An asset classification scheme is a system of organizing and categorizing assets based on their value, sensitivity, criticality, or risk level. An asset classification scheme helps to determine the appropriate level of protection or handling for each asset. For example, an asset classification scheme may assign labels such as public, internal, confidential, or secret to different types of data based on their impact if compromised. Databases that contain higher-classified data should be prioritized for encryption to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification.
Database administration audit logs, historical security incidents, or penetration test results are also useful information for database security, but they are not the most useful for prioritizing database selection for encryption. Database administration audit logs are records of activities performed by database administrators or other privileged users on the database system. Database administration audit logs help to monitor and verify the actions and changes made by authorized users and detect any anomalies or violations. Historical security incidents are records of events that have compromised or threatened the security of the database system in the past. Historical security incidents help to identify and analyze the root causes, impacts, and lessons learned from previous breaches or attacks. Penetration test results are reports of simulated attacks performed by ethical hackers or security experts on the database system to evaluate its vulnerabilities and defenses. Penetration test results help to discover and exploit any weaknesses or gaps in the database security posture and recommend remediation actions.
References: Data Classification Policy - SANS Institute, Database Security Best Practices - Oracle, [Database Security: An Essential Guide | IBM]
Which of the following hard drive sanitation methods provides an organization with the GREATEST level of assurance that data has been permanently erased?
Degaussing the drive
Factory resetting the drive
Crypto-shredding the drive
Reformatting the drive
Which of the following is the GREATEST obstacle to conducting a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
Conducting a PIA requires significant funding and resources.
PIAs need to be performed many times in a year.
The organization lacks knowledge of PIA methodology.
The value proposition of a PIA is not understood by management.
The value proposition of a PIA is not understood by management is the greatest obstacle to conducting a PIA, as it may result in lack of support, funding, resources or commitment for the PIA process and outcomes. Management may not appreciate or recognize the benefits of a PIA, such as enhancing privacy protection, reducing privacy risks and costs, increasing customer trust and satisfaction, and complying with privacy laws and regulations. Management may also perceive a PIA as a burden, a delay or a hindrance to the system or project development and delivery. The other options are not as significant as the value proposition of a PIA is not understood by management as obstacles to conducting a PIA. Conducting a PIA requires significant funding and resources is an obstacle to conducting a PIA, but it may be overcome by demonstrating the return on investment or the cost-benefit analysis of a PIA. PIAs need to be performed many times in a year is an obstacle to conducting a PIA, but it may be mitigated by adopting a scalable or modular approach to PIAs that can be tailored to different types or levels of systems or projects. The organization lacks knowledge of PIA methodology is an obstacle to conducting a PIA, but it may be resolved by acquiring or developing the necessary skills, tools or guidance for performing PIAs1, p. 67-68 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following helps define data retention time in a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data?
Privacy impact assessments (PIAs)
Data lake configuration
Data privacy standards
Information security assessments
Data privacy standards are the set of rules, guidelines, and best practices that define the requirements and expectations for the collection, processing, storage, sharing, and disposal of personal data. Data privacy standards help to ensure that personal data is treated in a fair, lawful, transparent, and secure manner, as well as to comply with the applicable privacy laws and regulations. Data privacy standards also help to define the data retention time in a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data, as they specify the criteria and conditions for how long personal data can be kept in the data lake, based on factors such as the purpose, necessity, relevance, and quality of the data. Data retention time is an important aspect of data privacy, as it affects the risk of data breaches, unauthorized access, or misuse of personal data.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 80
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective records management program for personal data?
Archived data is used for future analytics.
The legal department has approved the retention policy.
All sensitive data has been tagged.
A retention schedule is in place.
A retention schedule is a document that specifies how long different types of records or data should be kept and when they should be deleted or disposed of, based on legal, regulatory, operational or historical requirements. A retention schedule is the best indication of an effective records management program for personal data, as it reflects the principles of data minimization and storage limitation, which require limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes, and deleting or disposing of personal data when it is no longer needed or justified. A retention schedule also helps to reduce the privacy risks and costs associated with data storage and retention, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, misuse or loss of data. The other options are not as indicative of an effective records management program for personal data as a retention schedule. Archived data is used for future analytics may indicate that the organization is leveraging its data assets for business intelligence or research purposes, but it may not comply with the principles of data minimization and storage limitation, or the privacy rights and preferences of the data subjects. The legal department has approved the retention policy may indicate that the organization has obtained legal advice or guidance on its records management program for personal data, but it may not reflect the actual implementation or execution of the retention policy. All sensitive data has been tagged may indicate that the organization has implemented a data classification scheme for its records or data, but it may not indicate how long the records or data should be kept or when they should be deleted or disposed of1, p. 99-100 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following should be established FIRST before authorizing remote access to a data store containing personal data?
Privacy policy
Network security standard
Multi-factor authentication
Virtual private network (VPN)
A virtual private network (VPN) is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN should be established first before authorizing remote access to a data store containing personal data, as it protects the data from unauthorized interception, modification, or disclosure by third parties. A VPN also helps to ensure the identity and authenticity of the remote users and devices accessing the data store. References: 2 Domain 2, Task 8
Which of the following MUST be available to facilitate a robust data breach management response?
Lessons learned from prior data breach responses
Best practices to obfuscate data for processing and storage
An inventory of previously impacted individuals
An inventory of affected individuals and systems
An organization’s data destruction guidelines should require hard drives containing personal data to go through which of the following processes prior to being crushed?
Low-level formatting
Remote partitioning
Degaussing
Hammer strike
Degaussing is a hard drive sanitation method that uses a powerful magnetic field to erase or destroy the data stored on a magnetic disk or tape. Degaussing should be used to sanitize hard drives containing personal data prior to being crushed, as it provides an additional layer of assurance that data has been permanently erased and cannot be recovered by any means. Degaussing also damages the drive itself, making it unusable for future storage. The other options are not effective or necessary hard drive sanitation methods prior to being crushed. Low-level formatting is a hard drive sanitation method that erases the data and the partition table on the drive, but it may leave some traces of data that can be recovered by forensic tools or software. Remote partitioning is a hard drive sanitation method that creates separate logical sections on the drive, but it does not erase or destroy the data on the drive. Hammer strike is a hard drive sanitation method that physically damages the drive by hitting it with a hammer, but it may not erase or destroy the data completely or prevent data recovery by advanced tools or techniques1, p. 93-94 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following scenarios should trigger the completion of a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
Updates to data quality standards
New inter-organizational data flows
New data retention and backup policies
Updates to the enterprise data policy
A privacy impact assessment (PIA) is a process of analyzing the potential privacy risks and impacts of collecting, using, and disclosing personal data. A PIA should be conducted when there is a change in the data processing activities that may affect the privacy of individuals or the compliance with data protection laws and regulations. One of the scenarios that should trigger the completion of a PIA is when there are new inter-organizational data flows, which means that personal data is shared or transferred between different entities or jurisdictions. This may introduce new privacy risks, such as unauthorized access, misuse, or breach of data, as well as new legal obligations, such as obtaining consent, ensuring adequate safeguards, or notifying authorities.
References:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing policies and procedures for system hardening?
It increases system resiliency.
It reduces external threats to data.
It reduces exposure of data.
It eliminates attack motivation for data.
System hardening is a process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and enhance its resistance to threats. System hardening can include disabling unnecessary services, removing default accounts, applying patches and updates, enforcing strong passwords and encryption, and implementing firewalls and antivirus software. The primary benefit of system hardening is that it increases system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from adverse events that could affect its functionality or performance. The other options are not the primary benefits of system hardening, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. System hardening does not necessarily reduce external threats to data, as threats can originate from various sources and vectors. System hardening may reduce exposure of data, but only if the data is stored or processed by the system. System hardening does not eliminate attack motivation for data, as attackers may have different motives and incentives for targeting data. , p. 91-92 References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Within a regulatory and legal context, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a privacy notice sent to customers?
To educate data subjects regarding how personal data will be safeguarded
To inform customers about the procedure to legally file complaints for misuse of personal data
To provide transparency to the data subject on the intended use of their personal data
To establish the organization's responsibility for protecting personal data during the relationship with the data subject
A privacy notice is a document that informs data subjects about how their personal data is collected, processed, stored, shared, and protected by an organization. The primary purpose of a privacy notice is to provide transparency to the data subject on the intended use of their personal data, as well as their rights and choices regarding their data. A privacy notice also helps the organization comply with legal and regulatory requirements, such as obtaining consent, demonstrating accountability, and fulfilling the principle of fairness and lawfulness.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 36
Which of the following is the BEST way for senior management to verify the success of its commitment to privacy by design?
Review the findings of an industry benchmarking assessment
Identify trends in the organization's amount of compromised personal data
Review the findings of a third-party privacy control assessment
Identify trends in the organization's number of privacy incidents.
A third-party privacy control assessment is an independent and objective evaluation of the design and effectiveness of the privacy controls implemented by an organization to protect personal data and comply with privacy laws and regulations. A third-party privacy control assessment can help senior management to verify the success of its commitment to privacy by design, by providing the following benefits:
The other options are less effective or irrelevant for verifying the success of the commitment to privacy by design. Reviewing the findings of an industry benchmarking assessment may provide some insights into how the organization compares with its peers or competitors in terms of privacy performance, but it may not reflect the specific privacy goals, risks and challenges of the organization. Identifying trends in the organization’s amount of compromised personal data or number of privacy incidents may indicate some aspects of the organization’s privacy maturity, but they are reactive and lagging indicators that do not capture the proactive and preventive nature of privacy by design. Moreover, these metrics may not account for other factors that may influence the occurrence or impact of data breaches or privacy violations, such as external threats, human errors or environmental changes.
References:
When evaluating cloud-based services for backup, which of the following is MOST important to consider from a privacy regulation standpoint?
Data classification labeling
Data residing in another country
Volume of data stored
Privacy training for backup users
An organization is developing a wellness smartwatch application and is considering what information should be collected from the application users. Which of the following is the MOST legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation?
Height, weight, and activities
Sleep schedule and calorie intake
Education and profession
Race, age, and gender
Height, weight, and activities are the most legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation, as they are directly related to the purpose and functionality of a wellness smartwatch application that aims to monitor and improve the health and fitness of its users. Collecting height, weight, and activities would also comply with the data minimization principle that requires limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes. The other options are not legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation, as they are not related to the purpose and functionality of a wellness smartwatch application and may violate the privacy rights and preferences of its users. Collecting sleep schedule and calorie intake may be useful for some users who want to track their sleep quality and nutrition intake, but they are not essential for a wellness smartwatch application and may require additional consent or justification from the users. Collecting education and profession may be irrelevant for a wellness smartwatch application and may be used for other purposes, such as marketing or profiling, without the consent or knowledge of the users. Collecting race, age, and gender may be sensitive for some users who do not want to disclose their personal characteristics or identity, and may require additional safeguards or measures to protect their privacy1, p. 75-76 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, it is MOST important to ensure:
a training program is developed.
a privacy committee is established.
a distribution methodology is identified.
a legal review is conducted.
A legal review is the most important thing to ensure before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, as it would help to verify and validate the accuracy, completeness and compliance of the policy with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the collection, use, disclosure and transfer of personal data. A legal review would also help to identify and address any gaps, inconsistencies or conflicts in the policy, and to provide legal advice or guidance on the implementation and enforcement of the policy. The other options are not as important as a legal review in ensuring before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy. A training program is a method of educating and informing the employees and stakeholders about the new data privacy policy, its objectives, requirements and implications, but it does not ensure the quality or compliance of the policy itself. A privacy committee is a group of individuals who are responsible for overseeing, monitoring and evaluating the organization’s data privacy program, policies and practices, but it does not ensure the quality or compliance of the policy itself. A distribution methodology is a method of disseminating and communicating the new data privacy policy to the employees and stakeholders, such as email, intranet, website or newsletter, but it does not ensure the quality or compliance of the policy itself1, p. 98 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
An email opt-in form on a website applies to which privacy principle?
Accuracy
Consent
Transparency
Integrity
Of the following, who should be PRIMARILY accountable for creating an organization’s privacy management strategy?
Chief data officer (CDO)
Privacy steering committee
Information security steering committee
Chief privacy officer (CPO)
Some organizations, typically those that manage large amounts of personal information related to employees, customers, or constituents, will employ a chief privacy officer (CPO). Some organizations have a CPO because applicable regulations such as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) require it. Other regulations such as the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), and the GLBA place a slate of responsibilities upon an organization that compels them to hire an executive responsible for overseeing compliance.
The chief privacy officer (CPO) is the senior executive who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the organization’s privacy vision, strategy, and program. The CPO oversees the development and implementation of privacy policies, procedures, standards, and controls, and ensures that they align with the organization’s business objectives and legal obligations. The CPO also leads the privacy governance structure, such as the privacy steering committee, and coordinates with other stakeholders, such as the chief data officer (CDO), the information security steering committee, and the legal counsel, to ensure that privacy is integrated into all aspects of the organization’s operations. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 21
Which of the following should an IT privacy practitioner do FIRST following a decision to expand remote working capability to all employees due to a global pandemic?
Evaluate the impact resulting from this change.
Revisit the current remote working policies.
Implement a virtual private network (VPN) tool.
Enforce multi-factor authentication for remote access.
The first step for an IT privacy practitioner following a decision to expand remote working capability is to evaluate the impact resulting from this change on the organization’s privacy policies, programs and practices. This will help identify the risks and gaps that need to be addressed, as well as the opportunities for improvement and optimization. The other options are possible actions that may be taken after the impact assessment, depending on the results and recommendations.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to limit the organization’s potential exposure in the event of consumer data loss while maintaining the traceability of the data?
Encrypt the data at rest.
De-identify the data.
Use a unique hashing algorithm.
Require a digital signature.
De-identification is a technique that removes or modifies direct and indirect identifiers in a data set to prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects. De-identification reduces the risk of re-identification and thus limits the organization’s potential exposure in the event of consumer data loss. De-identification also maintains the traceability of the data by preserving some characteristics or patterns of the original data that can be used for analysis or research purposes. The other options are not effective ways to limit exposure and maintain traceability1, p. 75-76 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
When using pseudonymization to prevent unauthorized access to personal data, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to ensure the data is adequately protected?
The data must be protected by multi-factor authentication.
The identifier must be kept separate and distinct from the data it protects.
The key must be a combination of alpha and numeric characters.
The data must be stored in locations protected by data loss prevention (DLP) technology.
Pseudonymization is a technique that replaces direct identifiers in a data set with pseudonyms or artificial identifiers that do not reveal the identity of the data subjects. Pseudonymization reduces the linkability of the data set with the original identity of the data subjects and thus enhances the privacy and security of the data. However, pseudonymization is not irreversible and the original identity can be re-established if the pseudonym or key is compromised. Therefore, it is important to keep the identifier separate and distinct from the data it protects and to apply additional security measures to safeguard the identifier. The other options are not relevant to pseudonymization1, p. 74-75 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following BEST ensures a mobile application implementation will meet an organization’s data security standards?
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Data classification
Privacy impact assessment (PIA)
Automatic dynamic code scan
A mobile application implementation should meet the organization’s data security standards by ensuring that the application does not contain any vulnerabilities, errors or malicious code that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the data. An automatic dynamic code scan is a technique that analyzes the application code while it is running to detect and report any security issues or defects. An automatic dynamic code scan can help to identify and fix any potential data security risks before the application is deployed. The other options are not sufficient to ensure data security standards. UAT is a process of verifying that the application meets the user requirements and expectations, but it does not necessarily test for data security. Data classification is a process of categorizing data according to its sensitivity and value, but it does not ensure that the data is protected by the application. A PIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the privacy impacts of a system or project that involves personal data, but it does not ensure that the system or project meets data security standards. , p. 89-90 References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following protocols BEST protects end-to-end communication of personal data?
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Transport Layer Security Protocol (TLS)
Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Which of the following is the BEST way to explain the difference between data privacy and data security?
Data privacy is about data segmentation, while data security prevents unauthorized access.
Data privacy protects the data subjects, while data security is about protecting critical assets.
Data privacy stems from regulatory requirements, while data security focuses on consumer rights.
Data privacy protects users from unauthorized disclosure, while data security prevents compromise.
Data privacy and data security are related but distinct concepts that are both essential for protecting personal data. Data privacy is about ensuring that personal data are collected, used, shared and disposed of in a lawful, fair and transparent manner, respecting the rights and preferences of the data subjects. Data privacy also involves implementing policies, procedures and controls to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). Data privacy protects users from unauthorized disclosure of their personal data, which may result in harm, such as identity theft, fraud, discrimination or reputational damage.
Data security is about safeguarding the confidentiality, integrity and availability of data from unauthorized or malicious access, use, modification or destruction. Data security also involves implementing technical and organizational measures to prevent or mitigate data breaches or incidents, such as encryption, authentication, backup or incident response. Data security prevents compromise of data, which may result in loss, corruption or disruption of data.
References:
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining retention periods for personal data?
Sectoral best practices for the industry
Notice provided to customers during data collection
Data classification standards
Storage capacity available for retained data
The notice provided to customers during data collection is the most important consideration when determining retention periods for personal data, as it reflects the transparency and accountability principles of privacy and the expectations and preferences of the data subjects. The notice should inform the customers about the purposes and legal bases of the data processing, the rights and choices of the customers, and the safeguards and measures to protect the data, including how long the data will be kept and when it will be deleted or disposed of. The notice should also be consistent with the applicable laws and regulations that may prescribe or limit the retention periods for certain types of personal data. The other options are not as important as the notice provided to customers during data collection when determining retention periods for personal data. Sectoral best practices for the industry may provide some guidance or benchmarks for retention periods, but they may not reflect the specific context or needs of the organization or the customers. Data classification standards may help to categorize data according to its sensitivity and value, but they may not indicate how long the data should be retained or deleted. Storage capacity available for retained data may affect the feasibility or cost of retaining data, but it should not determine or override the retention periods based on privacy principles, laws or customer expectations1, p. 99-100 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
An IT privacy practitioner wants to test an application in pre-production that will be processing sensitive personal data. Which of the following testing methods is
BEST used to identity and review the application's runtime modules?
Static application security testing (SAST)
Dynamic application security testing (DAST)
Regression testing
Software composition analysis
The best testing method to identify and review the application’s runtime modules is dynamic application security testing (DAST). DAST is a testing technique that analyzes the application’s behavior and functionality during its execution. DAST can detect security and privacy vulnerabilities that are not visible in the source code, such as injection attacks, cross-site scripting, broken authentication, sensitive data exposure, or improper error handling. DAST can also simulate real-world attacks and test the application’s response and resilience. DAST can provide a comprehensive and realistic assessment of the application’s security and privacy posture in the pre-production environment. References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure an organization's enterprise risk management (ERM) framework can protect the organization from privacy harms?
Include privacy risks as a risk category.
Establish a privacy incident response plan.
Conduct an internal privacy audit.
Complete a privacy risk assessment.
The best way to ensure an organization’s enterprise risk management (ERM) framework can protect the organization from privacy harms is to complete a privacy risk assessment. A privacy risk assessment is a systematic process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the privacy risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, stakeholders, and reputation. A privacy risk assessment helps to align the ERM framework with the privacy requirements, expectations, and obligations of the organization, as well as to prioritize and mitigate the privacy risks that may cause privacy harms. Privacy harms are the adverse consequences or impacts that may result from the unauthorized or inappropriate use, disclosure, or loss of personal data, such as financial loss, identity theft, discrimination, reputational damage, emotional distress, or physical harm.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 84
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to gain visibility into Its exposure to privacy-related vulnerabilities?
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.
Review historical privacy incidents in the organization.
Monitor inbound and outbound communications.
Perform an analysis of known threats.
An analysis of known threats is the best way for an organization to gain visibility into its exposure to privacy-related vulnerabilities because it helps identify the sources, methods and impacts of potential privacy breaches and assess the effectiveness of existing controls. A data loss prevention (DLP) solution, a review of historical privacy incidents and a monitoring of inbound and outbound communications are useful tools for detecting and preventing privacy violations, but they do not provide a comprehensive view of the organization’s privacy risk posture.
References:
During the design of a role-based user access model for a new application, which of the following principles is MOST important to ensure data privacy is protected?
Segregation of duties
Unique user credentials
Two-person rule
Need-to-know basis
The need-to-know basis principle is a security principle that states that access to personal data should be limited to those who have a legitimate purpose for accessing it. The need-to-know basis principle helps to protect data privacy by minimizing the exposure of personal data to unauthorized or unnecessary parties, reducing the risk of data breaches, leaks, or misuse. The need-to-know basis principle should be applied when designing a role-based user access model for a new application, by defining clear roles and responsibilities for different users, granting access rights based on their roles and functions, and enforcing access controls and audits to monitor and verify data access. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 105
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate that privacy practices align to the published enterprise privacy management program?
Conduct an audit.
Report performance metrics.
Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).
Conduct a benchmarking analysis.
The best way to validate that privacy practices align to the published enterprise privacy management program is to conduct an audit. An audit is an independent and objective examination of evidence to provide assurance that privacy practices are effective and compliant with the enterprise privacy management program. An audit can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the privacy practices and provide recommendations for improvement. An audit can be conducted internally or externally, depending on the scope, objectives, and standards of the audit. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 83
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email?
Centrally managed encryption
End user-managed encryption
Private cloud storage space
Password-protected .zip files
Encryption is a security practice that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data, especially when they are transferred using email or other communication channels. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties can access and use the data, while unauthorized parties cannot decipher or modify the data without the key or algorithm. Encryption also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to safeguard personal data.
Centrally managed encryption is a type of encryption that is implemented and controlled by a central authority or system, such as an organization or a service provider. Centrally managed encryption has the following advantages over end user-managed encryption, private cloud storage space, or password-protected .zip files, for reducing the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email:
References:
An organization is creating a personal data processing register to document actions taken with personal data. Which of the following categories should document controls relating to periods of retention for personal data?
Data archiving
Data storage
Data acquisition
Data input
However, the risks associated with long-term retention have compelled organizations to consider alternatives; one is data archival, the process of preparing data for long-term storage. When organizations are bound by specific laws to retain data for many years, archival provides a viable opportunity to remove data from online transaction systems to other systems or media.
Data archiving is the process of moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate storage device for long-term retention. Data archiving helps to reduce the cost and complexity of data storage, improve the performance and availability of data systems, and comply with data retention policies and regulations. Data archiving should document controls relating to periods of retention for personal data, such as the criteria for determining the retention period, the procedures for deleting or anonymizing data after the retention period expires, and the mechanisms for ensuring the integrity and security of archived data. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 123
Which of the following should FIRST be established before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign?
Detailed documentation of data privacy processes
Strategic goals of the organization
Contract requirements for independent oversight
Business objectives of senior leaders
The strategic goals of the organization should be established first before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign, because they provide the direction, purpose, and scope of the campaign. The strategic goals of the organization reflect its vision, mission, values, and objectives, as well as its alignment with the relevant privacy laws and regulations, stakeholder expectations, and industry best practices. The privacy office should design and implement the awareness campaign in a way that supports and promotes the strategic goals of the organization, as well as measures and evaluates its effectiveness and impact.
References:
A data processor that handles personal data tor multiple customers has decided to migrate its data warehouse to a third-party provider. What is the processor
obligated to do prior to implementation?
Seek approval from all in-scope data controllers.
Obtain assurance that data subject requests will continue to be handled appropriately
Implement comparable industry-standard data encryption in the new data warehouse
Ensure data retention periods are documented
A data processor that handles personal data for multiple customers has decided to migrate its data warehouse to a third-party provider. The processor is obligated to seek approval from all in-scope data controllers prior to implementation. A data controller is an entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data. A data processor is an entity that processes personal data on behalf of a data controller. A third-party provider is an entity that provides services or resources to another entity, such as a cloud service provider or a hosting provider.
According to various privacy laws and regulations, such as the GDPR or the CCPA, a data processor must obtain explicit consent from the data controller before engaging another processor or transferring personal data to a third country or an international organization. The consent must specify the identity of the other processor or the third country or international organization, as well as the safeguards and guarantees for the protection of personal data. The consent must also be documented in a written contract or other legal act that binds the processor to respect the same obligations as the controller.
Seeking approval from all in-scope data controllers can help ensure that the processor complies with its contractual and legal obligations, respects the rights and preferences of the data subjects, and maintains transparency and accountability for its processing activities.
Obtaining assurance that data subject requests will continue to be handled appropriately, implementing comparable industry-standard data encryption in the new data warehouse, or ensuring data retention periods are documented are also good practices for a data processor that migrates its data warehouse to a third-party provider, but they are not obligations prior to implementation. Rather, they are requirements or recommendations during or after implementation.
Obtaining assurance that data subject requests will continue to be handled appropriately is a requirement for a data processor that processes personal data on behalf of a data controller. Data subject requests are requests made by individuals to exercise their rights regarding their personal data, such as access, rectification, erasure, restriction, portability, or objection. A data processor must assist the data controller in fulfilling these requests within a reasonable time frame and without undue delay.
Implementing comparable industry-standard data encryption in the new data warehouse is a recommendation for a data processor that transfers personal data to another system or location. Data encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Data encryption can help protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personal data by preventing unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification.
Ensuring data retention periods are documented is a requirement for a data processor that stores personal data on behalf of a data controller. Data retention periods are the durations for which personal data are kept before they are deleted or anonymized. Data retention periods must be determined by the purpose and necessity of processing personal data and must comply with legal and regulatory obligations.
References: Data warehouse migration tips: preparation and discovery - Google Cloud, Plan a data warehouse migration - Cloud Adoption Framework, Migrating your traditional data warehouse platform to BigQuery …
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications?
Whole disk encryption
Asymmetric encryption
Digital signature
Symmetric encryption
Asymmetric encryption is a method of encrypting and decrypting data using two different keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. Data encrypted with the public key can only be decrypted with the private key, and vice versa. Asymmetric encryption ensures the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications, by providing the following benefits:
The other options are less effective or irrelevant for ensuring the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications. Whole disk encryption is a method of encrypting all the data on a disk or device, such as a laptop or a smartphone. It does not protect the data when they are transferred over a network or stored on a cloud server. Symmetric encryption is a method of encrypting and decrypting data using the same key. It requires both parties to securely exchange and store the key, which may be difficult or risky in a cloud environment. Digital signature is not a method of encryption, but an application of asymmetric encryption that can provide additional security features for data transmission.
Which of the following is the BEST method of data sanitization when there is a need to balance the destruction of data and the ability to recycle IT assets?
Cryptographic erasure
Factory reset
Data deletion
Degaussing
Cryptographic erasure is a data sanitization method that uses encryption to render data unreadable and unrecoverable. It is the best method when there is a need to balance the destruction of data and the ability to recycle IT assets, because it does not damage the storage media and allows it to be reused or sold. It is also faster and more environmentally friendly than physical destruction methods.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST approach to minimize privacy risk when collecting personal data?
Use a third party to collect, store, and process the data.
Collect data through a secure organizational web server.
Collect only the data necessary to meet objectives.
Aggregate the data immediately upon collection.
Collecting only the data necessary to meet objectives is the best approach to minimize privacy risk when collecting personal data. This is based on the principle of data minimization, which states that personal data should be adequate, relevant, and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which they are processed. Using a third party, collecting data through a secure web server, or aggregating data immediately may reduce some privacy risks, but they do not eliminate the possibility of collecting excessive or unnecessary data. References: CDPSE Exam Content Outline, Domain 3, Task 3.2
What should be the PRIMARY consideration of a multinational organization deploying a user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) tool to centralize the monitoring of anomalous employee behavior?
Cross-border data transfer
Support staff availability and skill set
User notification
Global public interest
The primary consideration of a multinational organization deploying a user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) tool to centralize the monitoring of anomalous employee behavior is cross-border data transfer, because it may involve the transfer of personal data across different jurisdictions with different privacy laws and regulations. The organization needs to ensure that it complies with the applicable legal requirements and safeguards the privacy rights of its employees when transferring their data to a central location for analysis. The other options are secondary or operational considerations that may not have a significant impact on the privacy of the employees.
References:
Which of the following is the MOST effective remote access model for reducing the likelihood of attacks originating from connecting devices?
Thick client desktop with virtual private network (VPN) connection
Remote wide area network (WAN) links
Thin Client remote desktop protocol (RDP)
Site-to-site virtual private network (VPN)
A thin client remote desktop protocol (RDP) is the most effective remote access model for reducing the likelihood of attacks originating from connecting devices, because it minimizes the amount of data and processing that occurs on the remote device. A thin client RDP only sends keyboard, mouse and display information between the remote device and the server, while the actual processing and storage of data happens on the server. This reduces the exposure of sensitive data and applications to potential attackers who may compromise the remote device.
References:
Which of the following helps to ensure the identities of individuals in two-way communication are verified?
Virtual private network (VPN)
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Mutual certificate authentication
Secure Shell (SSH)
A multi-national organization has decided that regional human resources (HR) team members must be limited in their access to employee data only within their regional office. Which of the following is the BEST approach?
Discretionary access control (DAC)
Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
Provision-based access control (PBAC)
Mandatory access control (MAC)
Attribute-based access control (ABAC) is the best approach for limiting the access of regional HR team members to employee data only within their regional office, because it allows for fine-grained and dynamic access control based on attributes of the subject, object, environment, and action. Attributes are characteristics or properties that can be used to describe or identify entities, such as users, resources, locations, roles, or permissions. ABAC uses policies and rules that evaluate the attributes and grant or deny access accordingly. For example, an ABAC policy could state that a user can access an employee record if and only if the user’s role is HR and the user’s region matches the employee’s region. This way, the access control can be tailored to the specific needs and context of the organization, without relying on predefined or fixed access levels.
References:
A global organization is planning to implement a customer relationship management (CRM) system to be used in offices based in multiple countries. Which of the following is the MOST important data protection consideration for this project?
Industry best practice related to information security standards in each relevant jurisdiction
Identity and access management mechanisms to restrict access based on need to know
Encryption algorithms for securing customer personal data at rest and in transit
National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction
National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction are the most important data protection consideration for a global organization that is planning to implement a customer relationship management (CRM) system to be used in offices based in multiple countries, as they would determine the legal obligations and responsibilities of the organization with respect to the collection, use, disclosure and transfer of customer personal data across different jurisdictions. National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements may vary significantly from country to country, depending on the type or nature of personal data or data processing activities, and may impose different rules and standards for obtaining consent, providing notice, ensuring security, enforcing rights, reporting breaches, appointing representatives or transferring data. The organization would need to comply with the national data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction where it operates or where its customers are located, and to implement appropriate measures and safeguards to ensure compliance. The other options are not as important as national data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction as data protection considerations for a global organization that is planning to implement a CRM system to be used in offices based in multiple countries. Industry best practice related to information security standards in each relevant jurisdiction may provide some guidance or benchmarks for ensuring security of customer personal data, but they may not reflect the specific context or needs of the organization or the customers, or comply with the legal obligations and responsibilities of the organization. Identity and access management mechanisms to restrict access based on need to know may help to protect customer personal data from unauthorized access, modification or disclosure by internal or external parties, but they may not address other aspects of data protection, such as consent, notice, rights, breaches, representatives or transfers. Encryption algorithms for securing customer personal data at rest and in transit may help to protect customer personal data from unauthorized access, modification or disclosure by internal or external parties, but they may not address other aspects of data protection, such as consent, notice, rights, breaches, representatives or transfers1, p. 63-64 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
An organization wants to ensure that endpoints are protected in line with the privacy policy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration?
Detecting malicious access through endpoints
Implementing network traffic filtering on endpoint devices
Managing remote access and control
Hardening the operating systems of endpoint devices
The first consideration for ensuring that endpoints are protected in line with the privacy policy is hardening the operating systems of endpoint devices. Hardening is a process of applying security configurations and controls to reduce the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an operating system. Hardening can include disabling unnecessary services and features, applying security patches and updates, enforcing strong passwords and encryption, configuring firewall and antivirus settings, and implementing least privilege principles. Hardening the operating systems of endpoint devices can help prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or other threats that may compromise the privacy of personal data stored or processed on those devices.
Detecting malicious access through endpoints, implementing network traffic filtering on endpoint devices, and managing remote access and control are also important aspects of endpoint security, but they are not the first consideration. Rather, they are dependent on or complementary to hardening the operating systems of endpoint devices. For example, detecting malicious access requires having a baseline of normal activity and behavior on the endpoint device, which can be established by hardening. Implementing network traffic filtering requires having a firewall or other network security tool installed and configured on the endpoint device, which is part of hardening. Managing remote access and control requires having authentication and authorization mechanisms in place on the endpoint device, which is also part of hardening.
References: Manage endpoint security policies in Microsoft Intune, ENDPOINT SECURITY POLICY, How To Build An Effective Endpoint Security Policy And Prevent Cyberattacks
Copyright © 2014-2025 Certensure. All Rights Reserved