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Isaca CCAK Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Exam Practice Test

Demo: 62 questions
Total 207 questions

Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Questions and Answers

Question 1

As part of continuous auditing, which of the following should a third-party auditor verify on a regular basis?

Options:

A.

Reporting tools are reliable and based on defined objectives.

B.

The cloud service provider is compliant.

C.

Assessment tools are configured based on cloud security best practices.

D.

Application programming interfaces (APIs) implemented are appropriate.

Question 2

To ensure a cloud service provider is complying with an organization's privacy requirements, a cloud auditor should FIRST review:

Options:

A.

organizational policies, standards, and procedures.

B.

adherence to organization policies, standards, and procedures.

C.

legal and regulatory requirements.

D.

the IT infrastructure.

Question 3

From a compliance perspective, which of the following artifacts should an assessor review when evaluating the effectiveness of Infrastructure as Code deployments?

Options:

A.

Evaluation summaries

B.

logs

C.

SOC reports

D.

Interviews

Question 4

Which of the following standards is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 27001?

Options:

A.

ISO/IEC 27002

B.

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

C.

NISTSP 800-146

D.

ISO/IEC 27017:2015

Question 5

During the planning phase of a cloud audit, the PRIMARY goal of a cloud auditor is to:

Options:

A.

specify appropriate tests.

B.

address audit objectives.

C.

minimize audit resources.

D.

collect sufficient evidence.

Question 6

To promote the adoption of secure cloud services across the federal government by

Options:

A.

To providing a standardized approach to security and risk assessment

B.

To provide agencies of the federal government a dedicated tool to certify Authority to

Operate (ATO)

C.

To enable 3PAOs to perform independent security assessments of cloud service providers

D.

To publish a comprehensive and official framework for the secure implementation of

controls for cloud security

Question 7

An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month. Which of the following

What should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider’s burden?

Options:

A.

The provider can answer each customer individually.

B.

The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry.

C.

The provider can schedule a call with each customer.

D.

The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process

Question 8

The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:

Options:

A.

GDPR CoC certification.

B.

GB/T 22080-2008.

C.

SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.

D.

ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.

Question 9

After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?

Options:

A.

As an availability breach

B.

As a control breach

C.

As a confidentiality breach

D.

As an integrity breach

Question 10

In the context of Infrastructure as a Service (laaS), a vulnerability assessment will scan virtual machines to identify vulnerabilities in:

Options:

A.

both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the cloud service

provider’s instances.

B.

both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the customer’s

instances.

C.

only application infrastructure contained within the cloud service provider’s instances.

D.

only application infrastructure contained within the customer's instance

Question 11

Who should define what constitutes a policy violation?

Options:

A.

The external auditor

B.

The organization

C.

The Internet service provider (ISP)

D.

The cloud provider

Question 12

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a cloud service provider's continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) development pipeline includes checks for compliance as new features are added to its Software as a Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Compliance tests are automated and integrated within the Cl tool.

B.

Developers keep credentials outside the code base and in a secure repository.

C.

Frequent compliance checks are performed for development environments.

D.

Third-party security libraries are continuously kept up to date.

Question 13

Who is accountable for the use of a cloud service?

Options:

A.

The cloud access security broker (CASB)

B.

The supplier

C.

The cloud service provider

D.

The organization (client)

Question 14

For an auditor auditing an organization's cloud resources, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The organization does not have separate policies for governing its cloud environment.

B.

The organization's IT team does not include resources with cloud certifications.

C.

The organization does not perform periodic reviews or control monitoring for its cloud environment, but it has a documented audit plan and performs an audit for its cloud environment every alternate year.

D.

The risk management team reports to the head of audit.

Question 15

"Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, for maintenance of several items ensuring continuity and availability of operations and support personnel." Which of the following types of controls BEST matches this control description?

Options:

A.

System development maintenance

B.

Operations maintenance

C.

System maintenance

D.

Equipment maintenance

Question 16

What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?

Options:

A.

Enterprise cloud strategy and policy

B.

Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers

C.

Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments

D.

Inventory of third-party attestation reports

Question 17

What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?

Options:

A.

Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems

B.

Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early

C.

A waterfall model remove resources through the development to release phases

D.

Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits

Question 18

Which of the following are the three MAIN phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology?

Options:

A.

Initiation — Execution — Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Plan - Develop - Release

C.

Preparation — Execution - Peer Review and Publication

Question 19

Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to:

Options:

A.

help identify controls with common assessment status.

B.

avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance,

C.

help identify controls with different assessment status.

D.

start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment.

Question 20

Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

Options:

A.

Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

B.

Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders

C.

Establishing ownership and accountability

D.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments

Question 21

In relation to testing business continuity management and operational resilience, an auditor should review which of the following database documentation?

Options:

A.

Database backup and replication guidelines

B.

System backup documentation

C.

Incident management documentation

D.

Operational manuals

Question 22

Which of the following enables auditors to conduct gap analyses of what a cloud service provider offers versus what the customer requires?

Options:

A.

Using a standardized control framework

B.

The experience gained over the years

C.

Understanding the customer risk profile

D.

The as-is and to-be enterprise architecture (EA

Question 23

When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

Options:

A.

Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.

B.

Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.

C.

Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.

D.

Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the organization.

Question 24

While using Software as a Service (SaaS) to store secret customer information, an organization identifies a risk of disclosure to unauthorized parties. Although the SaaS service continues to be used, secret customer data is not processed. Which of the following risk treatment methods is being practiced?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk reduction

Question 25

Which of the following types of SOC reports BEST helps to ensure operating effectiveness of controls in a cloud service provider offering?

Options:

A.

SOC 3 Type 2

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 2 Type 1

Question 26

A new company has all its operations in the cloud. Which of the following would be the BEST information security control framework to implement?

Options:

A.

NIST 800-73, because it is a control framework implemented by the main cloud providers

B.

ISO/IEC 27018

C.

ISO/IEC 27002

D.

(S) Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?

Options:

A.

The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.

B.

A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database.

C.

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.

D.

An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack

Question 28

What is the FIRST thing to define when an organization is moving to the cloud?

Options:

A.

Goals of the migration

B.

Internal service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Specific requirements

D.

Provider evaluation criteria

Question 29

The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.

B.

enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.

C.

provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.

D.

ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users

Question 30

Which of the following would be the GREATEST governance challenge to an organization where production is hosted in a public cloud and backups are held on the premises?

Options:

A.

Aligning the cloud service delivery with the organization’s objectives

B.

Aligning shared responsibilities between provider and customer

C.

Aligning the cloud provider’s service level agreement (SLA) with the organization's policy

D.

Aligning the organization's activity with the cloud provider’s policy

Question 31

A contract containing the phrase "You automatically consent to these terms by using or logging into the service to which they pertain" is establishing a contract of:

Options:

A.

exclusivity.

B.

adhesion.

C.

execution.

D.

exclusion.

Question 32

An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to:

Options:

A.

obtain the ISO/IEC 27001 certification from an accredited certification body (CB) following the ISO/IEC 17021-1 standard.

B.

determine whether the organization can be considered fully compliant with the mapped standards because of the implementation of every CCM Control Specification.

C.

understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards.

Question 33

Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

Options:

A.

Establishing ownership and accountability

B.

Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders

C.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments

D.

Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

Question 34

Under GDPR, an organization should report a data breach within what time frame?

Options:

A.

48 hours

B.

72 hours

C.

1 week

D.

2 weeks

Question 35

Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?

Options:

A.

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

B.

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

C.

Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2

D.

ISO 27001

Question 36

Which of the following is MOST important for an auditor to understand regarding cloud security controls?

Options:

A.

Controls adapt to changes in the threat landscape.

B.

Controls are the responsibility of the cloud service provider.

C.

Controls are the responsibility of the internal audit team.

D.

Controls are static and do not change.

Question 37

The BEST method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through:

Options:

A.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis.

B.

tools selected by the third-party auditor.

C.

SOC 2 Type 2 attestation.

D.

a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs).

Question 38

What should be the auditor's PRIMARY objective when examining a cloud service provider's service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether the SLA includes all the operational matters that are material to the operation of the service

B.

Verifying whether the SLAs are well defined and measurable

C.

Verifying whether commensurate compensation in the form of service credits are factored in if the customer is unable to match its SLA obligations

D.

Verifying whether the SLA caters to the availability requirements of the cloud service customer

Question 39

An auditor wants to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization. Which of the following can BEST help to gain the required information?

Options:

A.

ISAE 3402 report

B.

ISO/IEC 27001 certification

C.

SOC1 Type 1 report

D.

SOC2 Type 2 report

Question 40

In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud services, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are:

Options:

A.

treated as confidential information and withheld from all sub cloud service providers.

B.

treated as sensitive information and withheld from certain sub cloud service providers.

C.

passed to the sub cloud service providers.

D.

passed to the sub cloud service providers based on the sub cloud service providers' geographic location.

Question 41

Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include:

Options:

A.

regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer.

B.

audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms.

C.

policies and procedures of the cloud customer

D.

the organizational chart of the provider.

Question 42

An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community. Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?

Options:

A.

Management of the organization being audited

B.

Shareholders and interested parties

C.

Cloud service provider

D.

Public

Question 43

Which of the following should a cloud auditor recommend regarding controls for application interfaces and databases to prevent manual or systematic processing errors, corruption of data, or misuse?

Options:

A.

Assessment of contractual and regulatory requirements for customer access

B.

Establishment of policies and procedures across multiple system interfaces, jurisdictions,

and business functions to prevent improper disclosure, alteration, or destruction

C.

Data input and output integrity routines

D.

Testing in accordance with leading industry standards such as OWASP

Question 44

An auditor examining a cloud service provider's service level agreement (SLA) should be MOST concerned about whether:

Options:

A.

the agreement includes any operational matters that are material to the service operations.

B.

the agreement excludes any sourcing and financial matters that are material in meeting the

service level agreement (SLA).

C.

the agreement includes any service availability matters that are material to the service operations.

D.

the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations

Question 45

Which of the following key stakeholders should be identified FIRST when an organization is designing a cloud compliance program?

Options:

A.

Cloud strategy owners

B.

Internal control function

C.

Cloud process owners

D.

Legal functions

Question 46

The MOST important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the:

Options:

A.

shared responsibility model.

B.

effectiveness of the controls.

C.

risk reporting.

D.

risk ownership

Question 47

In a situation where duties related to cloud risk management and control are split between an organization and its cloud service providers, which of the following would BEST help to ensure a coordinated approach to risk and control processes?

Options:

A.

Establishing a joint security operations center

B.

Automating reporting of risk and control compliance

C.

Co-locating compliance management specialists

D.

Maintaining a centralized risk and controls dashboard

Question 48

An auditor is assessing a European organization's compliance. Which regulation is suitable if health information needs to be protected?

Options:

A.

GDPR

B.

DPIA

C.

DPA

D.

HIPAA

Question 49

When performing audits in relation to business continuity management and operational resilience strategy, what would be the MOST critical aspect to audit in relation to the strategy of the cloud customer that should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Validate whether the strategy covers all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption.

B.

Validate whether the strategy is developed by both cloud service providers and cloud service consumers within the acceptable limits of their risk appetite.

C.

Validate whether the strategy covers all activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, aligned to the risk appetite of the organization including the invocation of continuity plans and crisis management capabilities.

Question 50

A certification target helps in the formation of a continuous certification framework by incorporating:

Options:

A.

the service level objective (SLO) and service qualitative objective (SQO).

B.

the scope description and security attributes to be tested.

C.

the frequency of evaluating security attributes.

D.

CSA STAR level 2 attestation.

Question 51

Which of the following is an example of reputational business impact?

Options:

A.

While the breach was reported in a timely manner to the CEO, the CFO and CISO blamed each other in public, resulting in a loss of public confidence that led the board to replace all three.

B.

The cloud provider fails to report a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server, resulting in GDPR fines of 10 million euros.

C.

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours, resulting in millions in lost sales.

D.

A hacker using a stolen administrator identity brings down the Software as a Service (SaaS) sales and marketing systems, resulting in the inability to process customer orders or manage customer relationships.

Question 52

A cloud service customer is looking to subscribe to a finance solution provided by a cloud service provider. The provider has clarified that the audit logs cannot be taken out of the cloud environment by the customer to its security information and event management (SIEM) solution for monitoring purposes. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to the auditor?

Options:

A.

The audit logs are overwritten every 30 days, and all past audit trail is lost.

B.

The audit trails are backed up regularly, but the backup is not encrypted.

C.

The provider does not maintain audit logs in their environment.

D.

The customer cannot monitor its cloud subscription on its own and must rely on the provider for monitoring purposes.

Question 53

Which of the following is a direct benefit of mapping the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to other international standards and regulations?

Options:

A.

CCM mapping enables cloud service providers and customers alike to streamline their own compliance and security efforts.

B.

CCM mapping entitles cloud service providers to be listed as an approved supplier for tenders and government contracts.

C.

CCM mapping entitles cloud service providers to be certified under the CSA STAR program.

D.

CCM mapping enables an uninterrupted data flow and in particular the export of personal data across different jurisdictions.

Question 54

Which of the following would be considered as a factor to trust in a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

The level of willingness to cooperate

B.

The level of exposure for public information

C.

The level of open source evidence available

D.

The level of proven technical skills

Question 55

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure effective cloud application controls are maintained in an organization?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Third-party vendor involvement

C.

Exception reporting

D.

Application team internal review

Question 56

What do cloud service providers offer to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform?

Options:

A.

Cloud console

B.

Reward programs

C.

Access to the cloud infrastructure

D.

Application programming interfaces (APIs)

Question 57

Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:

Options:

A.

client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.

B.

suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.

C.

client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the

provider's responsibility.

D.

client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.

Question 58

A large healthcare provider within the United States is seeking a cloud service provider offering Software as a Service (SaaS) for core business systems. The selected provider MUST comply with which of the following regulations?

Options:

A.

GDPR

B.

HIPAA

C.

GLBA

D.

FISMA

Question 59

Which of the following is the reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ)?

Options:

A.

Cloud service providers need the CAIQ to improve quality of customer service.

B.

Cloud service providers can document their security and compliance controls.

C.

Cloud service providers can document roles and responsibilities for cloud security.

D.

Cloud users can use CAIQ to sign statement of work (SOW) with cloud access security

Question 60

Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Documentation criteria for the audit evidence

B.

Testing procedure to be performed

C.

Processes and systems to be audited

D.

Updated audit work program

Question 61

Which of the following cloud service models creates a cloud version of a contract template?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Security as a Service (SecaaS)

Question 62

What is the MOST effective way to ensure a vendor is compliant with the agreed-upon cloud service?

Options:

A.

Examine the cloud provider's certifications and ensure the scope is appropriate.

B.

Document the requirements and responsibilities within the customer contract

C.

Interview the cloud security team and ensure compliance.

D.

Pen test the cloud service provider to ensure compliance.

Demo: 62 questions
Total 207 questions