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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Essentials of Internal Auditing Exam Practice Test

Demo: 216 questions
Total 721 questions

Essentials of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a control that is used mainly to check the integrity of data entered into a business application, whether the data is entered directly by staff, remotely by a business partner, or through a web-enabled application?

Options:

A.

General IT control.

B.

Processing control.

C.

Input control

D.

Integrity control

Question 2

According to HA guidance, if an internal auditor suspects fraud during an assurance engagement, what should the auditor do first?

Options:

A.

Recommend parties involved to be sanctioned in accordance with the organization's policy.

B.

Determine whether any additional audit work needs to be performed.

C.

Launch an investigation to obtain details of the fraud and parties involved.

D.

Request that the responsible process owner remediate the issue immediately.

Question 3

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Monitoring resources.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

C.

Determining scope.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

Question 4

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

Question 5

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

Question 6

Which of the following scenarios would most likely impair the independence of an internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A relative of an internal audit team member works m a department being reviewed

B.

The internal audit budget is reduced by management requiring the removal of all lT-related engagements from the audit plan

C.

An audit manager removes a finding from the draft report due to disagreements with the chief financial officer

D.

The operating effectiveness of a control is reported as 'satisfactory." because no concerns were identified during planning

Question 7

According to the Standards, in today's technology and business environments, how much computer and information systems-related knowledge and skills must an internal auditor have to be effective in fulfilling his job responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Auditors must have an IT specialty in at least one of their organization's key information technology systems.

B.

Auditors must be proficient in data analysis and computer assisted audit techniques for their organization.

C.

Auditors must understand their organization's integrated test facilities and generalized audit software.

D.

Auditors must understand their organization's IT governance, risk, and control processes.

Question 8

Which of the following is an area that an organization would most likely include as part of its corporate social responsibility reporting?

Options:

A.

The profitability impact of its products in developing markets.

B.

The amount of political donations to local government races.

C.

The number of complaints related to traffic from its new factory.

D.

The compensation packages awarded to senior management.

Question 9

When testing a sample of payroll records during an engagement, an internal auditor suspects mat fraud has been committed. What should be the next step?

Options:

A.

The auditor should increase the sample size to determine the extent ol the fraud.

B.

The suspicions should be communicated to the chief audit executive.

C.

The testing should be completed with the results reported in the final audit report.

D.

A fraud investigator should examine the evidence and report back to the auditor.

Question 10

In a small company with a small budget, the board and senior management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to develop specific controls prompted by a new regulatory requirement affecting a specific process. The CAE was also directed to report functionally to senior management. An audit engagement on this process was already set in the internal audit plan. Which of the following represents an impairment to the internal audit activity's independence?

Options:

A.

The development of controls by the CAE.

B.

The audit engagement regarding this process.

C.

The functional reporting of the CAE to senior management.

D.

The small budget.

Question 11

According to IIA guidance, an internal audit charter should detail which of the following?

Options:

A.

The objectives and goals of management

B.

The process used by the CAE to manage the organization's internal controls

C.

The nature of services that the internal audit activity will provide to external third parties

D.

The responsibilities of the audit committee

Question 12

An internal audit activity is performing a governance engagement. Which of the following would provide the best evidence for an internal auditor when evaluating the organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Personnel and customer surveys, actual reports, and due diligence results regarding third-party governance practices.

B.

Details on mandatory reporting to third parties, disclosure committee charter and responsibilities, and the internal communication system.

C.

Succession plans, development programs, and job descriptions with responsibilities and authorities.

D.

Ethics and integrity policy; structured interviews with employees; and established and communicated values, mission, and vision.

Question 13

An experienced internal auditor is planning an assurance engagement of the organization's sales activities. During process walkthroughs and interviews, many sales representatives expressed concerns about management's escalating demands to meet the organization's sales goals. According to the MA guidance, which of the following is the best application of due professional care in planning the engagement?

Options:

A.

Disregard the complaints because the information isn't reliable and isn't sufficient to support engagement conclusions and results.

B.

Consider the significance of the risks related to the complaints and develop appropriate assurance procedures in work programs.

C.

Disregard the complaints because using them would violate the confidentiality principle.

D.

Discuss management's needs and expectations related to including the complaints in the audit scope.

Question 14

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are considered a core internal audit role with regard to enterprise risk management?

Reviewing the management of key risks.

Evaluating the reporting of key risks.

Evaluating risk management processes.

Consolidating the reporting of risks.

Options:

A.

1 and 4.

B.

2 and 4.

C.

2, 3, and 4.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 15

A chief audit executive (CAE) has been asked by the board to evaluate the effectiveness of ethical programs created by management. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Compare the design of the organization's ethical programs with best practices.

B.

Verify that a code of conduct and related policies exist and are communicated.

C.

Use employee surveys to assess whether ethical programs are achieving desired outcomes.

D.

Compare the cost of the ethical programs with the achieved outcomes.

Question 16

According to the Standards, in today's technology and business environments, how much computer and information systems-related knowledge and skills must an internal auditor have to be effective in fulfilling his job responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Auditors must have an IT specialty in at least one of their organization's key information technology systems.

B.

Auditors must be proficient in data analysis and computer assisted audit techniques for their organization.

C.

Auditors must understand their organization's integrated test facilities and generalized audit software.

D.

Auditors must understand their organization's IT governance, risk, and control processes.

Question 17

The internal audit activity conducted an organization wide risk assessment. One of the most significant risks identified is associated with the oil price market. The chief audit executive (CAE) is considering including in the annual audit plan an assessment of the effectiveness of oil price risk management. The manager responsible commented that the assessment was not needed, as market risks were regularly addressed by the financial risk committee. If the CAE decides to include this activity in the annual audit plan anyway, how should it be recorded?

Options:

A.

A consulting engagement independent of the financial risk committee's review.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

An assurance engagement.

D.

A joint consulting engagement with input from the financial risk committee.

Question 18

To comply with the proficiency standard which of the following would the chief audit executive likely consider as the primary hiring criterion when choosing a new internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The length and consistency of the auditor's work experience

B.

The auditor's demonstrated problem-solving skills

C.

The auditor's skills compared to those already possessed by other audit staff

D.

The auditor's ability to be self motivated and a good team player

Question 19

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Question 20

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor's opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations

Question 21

Which of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system.

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed in the last year.

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistleblower hotline.

Question 22

Which of the following items related to the quality assurance and improvement program should the chief audit executive report to the board?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring results

B.

Periodic management assessment results

C.

Annual risk assessment results

D.

Internal auditors' training evaluation results

Question 23

Which of the following must be considered by the chief audit executive before writing the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' level of competencies and skills.

B.

The manner in which the internal audit activity is viewed by the board.

C.

Evaluation of staff certifications and continued development.

D.

Effectiveness of the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 24

A chief audit executive (CAE) is concerned that the internal audit activity is not receiving adequate training and continuing education. Which of the following approaches should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Implement a uniform professional development plan for the internal audit activity.

B.

Create a formal development agreement with each individual staff auditor.

C.

Require each internal auditor to obtain the same professional certifications.

D.

Require training and developmental activities that are sponsored by The HA.

Question 25

An internal auditor in a newly established internal audit activity identifies many control weaknesses and raises a number of high-priority recommendations in her first few audit engagements. The internal auditor is concerned that there seems to be a poor understanding by management of risk and control. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

Options:

A.

Poor performance by individual operational managers in the areas audited.

B.

Unrealistic expectations by the internal audit activity on the quality of risk management and control.

C.

A lack of an effective organizational framework for risk management and control.

D.

A failure by the internal audit activity to identify and manage the organization's risks.

Question 26

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding ethics is true?

Options:

A.

Business ethics may vary within an organization with both domestic and foreign operations.

B.

Business ethics are universal in nature and organizations across the world are expected to comply with similar standards.

C.

A business ethics policy for an organization is established solely to direct the behavior and expectations of employees.

D.

Business ethics of an organization must remain independent from those of suppliers, customers, and business partners.

Question 27

What is the best course of action when the internal audit activity does not have the knowledge necessary to perform a planned audit of the organization's new IT data backup process?

Options:

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

Question 28

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate to help a new internal auditor understand the nature and positioning of the internal audit activity within his organization?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter.

B.

Examples of internal audit reports.

C.

The internal audit policy and procedures manual.

D.

The IIA’s International Professional Practices Framework.

Question 29

Which of the following actions does a competency assessment tool help the chief audit executive perform?

Options:

A.

Record that the internal audit activity’s completion of audit assignments has been met.

B.

Hire qualified and skilled internal auditors for the organization's internal audit activity.

C.

Postpone audits where the internal team does not have the necessary skills or knowledge.

D.

Assess the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity to identify any gaps.

Question 30

Which of the following would most likely represent an objectivity impairment for an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Providing fraud awareness training and disseminating information regarding the organization's fraud hotline.

B.

Performing consulting services after disclosing that the auditor had previous responsibilities in the area under review.

C.

Performing an assurance engagement related to the cash receipts process three years after transferring to the internal audit activity from accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a compliance audit on a vendor prior to disclosing that the vendor's office manager is the auditor’s brother.

Question 31

Which of the following approaches will internal audit utilize when developing a set of performance standards to measure an organization’s risk management process against?

Options:

A.

Key principles approach

B.

Process elements approach

C.

Holistic approach

D.

Maturity model approach

Question 32

Senior management is eager to assess the organization's risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

Question 33

During a quality assessment of the internal audit activity an auditor is assessing whether the independence of the internal audit activity is at risk of being compromised. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would provide the best source of evidence for such an assessment?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart showing the reporting line of the chief audit executive to the CEO

B.

The internal audit charter as endorsed by the organization’s governing body

C.

A review of the audit opinions issued from a sample of recent audit engagements

D.

An assessment of the scope of the audit work performed by the internal au

Question 34

Which of the following should be part of the internal audit activity's duties?

Options:

A.

Actively reporting to the governing body.

B.

Providing risk management frameworks.

C.

Assisting management in developing processes and controls to manage risks and issues.

D.

Identifying and mitigating significant risks to the organization.

Question 35

Which of the following statements is true regarding reporting results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments must be reported to the board at least every five years

B.

If supported by assessment results, reporting provides assurance that internal auditors demonstrate conformance with the Code of Ethics

C.

Following the reporting the board must give the internal audit activity five years to correct any deviations

D.

A report, including the results of both internal and external assessments must be provided to the board annually

Question 36

Which combination of strategies would provide the best evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization's risk assessment activity?

1. Interview staff at various levels to discuss the organization's objectives, significant risks, and risk appetite.

2. Review board meeting minutes to determine whether the significant risks identified are communicated timely to the board.

3. Evaluate the adequacy and timeliness of management remediation actions by reviewing the control design, testing the controls, and reviewing monitoring procedures.

4. Review the professional development plans of internal audit staff to ensure all are competent to assess the organization's risk assessment activity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1.2, and 3 only.

C.

1.3. and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 37

An organization opened its warehouse to sell written-off surplus and outdated office furniture to the general public. Prices were negotiable, and customers could pay by cash, check, or credit card. Receipts were available upon request, and were issued by the inventory manager upon collection of payment. At the end of the day, the manager forwarded all of the funds he had collected to the finance department for deposit. Which of the following types of fraud is most likely to occur under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Falsifying records.

D.

Skimming

Question 38

An internal audit activity is using the auditing-by-element approach to audit the organization's controls around corporate social responsibility. Which of the following would be an element for the internal audit activity to consider?

Options:

A.

Working conditions.

B.

Employees' families.

C.

Marketplace competition.

D.

Shareholders and investors

Question 39

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 40

Which of the following scenarios is a characterize of an organization with a highly effective ethical culture?

Options:

A.

An organization implements and communicates to staff a formal and comprehensive code of conduct, which is clear and understandable.

B.

An organization waives reference and background checks when hiring for certain sensitive positions in order to not violate potential employees' rights to privacy.

C.

An organization punishes senior management more harshly for ethics violations than it would for lower-level staff to send a message throughout the organization.

D.

An organization conducts surveys of employees, suppliers, and customers once every five years to determine the slate of the ethical climate in the organization.

Question 41

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO.

B.

The CAE's compensation is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The CAE's appointment Is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer.

Question 42

Which of the following is the best example of a risk appetite statement concerning an investment portfolio?

Options:

A.

We will request CEO approval for investments greater than S20 million and board approval for investments greater than $50 million.

B.

We will hedge 95 percent of our U S. currency exposure and 100 percent of our European currency exposure.

C.

We have a moderate tolerance for investment earnings volatility with a target value at risk of S50 million.

D.

We will report to the risk committee all credit losses greater than S10 million and all market value losses greater than S20 million.

Question 43

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization's risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

Question 44

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor's competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 45

According to NA guidance which of the following should be documented in the internal audit chatter?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process applied by the internal audit activity

B.

The organization's internal control framework used by the internal audit activity

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

D.

The performance evaluation process used by the internal audit activity

Question 46

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor discovered that risk limits risk limit were set for a new market expansion project Management of the area under review was eager to comply and submitted a potential risk limit value for the auditor's review and approval. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Review the submission and if no further remarks exist approve the risk limits

B.

Provide advice if needed and ask management of the area under review to forward to senior management and the board for approval

C.

Develop risk limit calculation criteria and ask management of the area under review to resubmit the values.

D.

Avoid providing any advice or review until the audit report is issued

Question 47

Which of the following best describes the differences between internal auditors and external auditors?

Options:

A.

External auditors are concerned about misstatements in the organization's financial statements, while internal auditors are concerned about fraudulent activities that could impact the organization’s financial statements

B.

External auditors are required to hold an accounting designation and are responsible for continuing their education, while internal auditors are required to hold an internal audit designation.

C.

External auditors focus on the accuracy and understandability of financial statements, while internal auditors help the organization accomplish its objectives by evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the control process.

D.

External auditors are not employees of the organization, while internal auditors are employees who have in-depth knowledge of the business, making their opinion more reliable to the board and senior management.

Question 48

An organization is considering purchasing a new banking software system and has asked the internal audit activity to evaluate the system. An internal auditor assigned to perform the engagement worked at the software company two years ago and is familiar with the system's design strengths and weaknesses. Which of the following is true regarding impairment to the auditor's objectivity?

Options:

A.

This situation does not necessitate any action related to the auditor's objectivity.

B.

The auditor should decline to perform the audit because personal conflicts of interest are likely.

C.

The auditor must disclose to the chief audit executive that this situation may impair her objectivity.

D.

The auditor can provide only consulting services, not assurance.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives are prerequisites to establishing internal controls.

B.

Internal controls eliminate process breakdowns caused by human errors.

C.

Well-established internal controls cannot be overridden.

D.

Robust internal controls ensure business success.

Question 50

Which data analytics competency is critical for new internal auditors to possess in order to plan and perform internal audit engagements in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Describe data analytics and the application of data analytics methods in internal auditing.

B.

Apply data analytics methods in internal auditing.

C.

Evaluate the use of data analytics in an internal audit.

D.

Understand the definition of data analytics only.

Question 51

As part of a fraud investigation by regulators, a court order was issued to a bank. The court order requested the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide access to a number of audit reports and workpapers, some of which included customers' confidential information such as transaction activity and other personal details. What is the appropriate response by the CAE?

Options:

A.

Reject the court order, citing a potential breach of customers' confidentiality agreement

B.

Consult with legal counsel to determine what information to provide.

C.

Respond promptly and provide all that was requested by the court order.

D.

Seek permission from customers prior to sharing their information.

Question 52

Anew internal auditor suspects fraud is taking place. Which action should the new auditor take?

Options:

A.

Collect relevant audit evidence and begin working with management of the area to investigate the fraud.

B.

Inform the chief audit executive and meet with the suspect to determine whether the person committed fraud.

C.

Document supporting information and recommend an investigation to the appropriate audit management.

D.

Evaluate existing controls and implement new procedures to mitigate the opportunity for fraud.

Question 53

According to MA guidance, which of the following best describes how often the chief audit executive should review the quality assurance and improvement program of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Whenever the business objectives of the organization change

B.

Just prior to an external assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

At the completion of each engagement.

D.

Progressively on a day-to-day basis

Question 54

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' use of technology-based techniques?

Options:

A.

Auditors must consider using technology if it advances the engagement, even when implementation costs exceed the benefits.

B.

Auditors must considering using technology to reduce the organization's risk by detecting all instances of fraud.

C.

Auditors must consider using technology only when the Implementation cost does not exceed benefits.

D.

Auditors must consider using technology in a variety of engagements to ensure that their work is substantiated and infallible.

Question 55

In an internal audit charter, which of the following statements regarding the chief audit executive (CAE) would be most directly related to describing the responsibilities of the internal audit activity*?

Options:

A.

The CAE shall report functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE and the Internal audit activity shall have full access to any and all records and personnel of the organization that are relevant to audit engagements

C.

The CAE and the internal audit activity shall be independent and objective in performing their work.

D.

The CAE shall report periodically on the performance of the internal audit activity relative to its plan

Question 56

In which of the following scenarios would the internal auditor’s objectivity be best protected?

Options:

A.

A former human resources manager conducts an effectiveness review of the appointment and termination process six months after transferring to the internal audit activity.

B.

An accounts payable clerk assists the internal auditors during an effectiveness review of the physical access controls to the server room.

C.

An internal auditor writes the system manual for a newly acquired payroll software application prior to conducting an effectiveness review of the system.

D.

An internal auditor conducts an effectiveness review of an organization's business continuity plan in which his son is a minority stockholder.

Question 57

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question 58

Which of the following is true about a system of internal control?

Options:

A.

Internal control should be updated at least annually.

B.

Technology does not change the internal control landscape.

C.

Strategy should fit the system of internal control.

D.

Articulating measurable objectives is part of internal control.

Question 59

A third-party provider's questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization's risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider's labor practices.

Question 60

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently.

Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

Question 61

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

Question 62

To encourage internal audit objectivity, which of the following is an appropriate policy the chief audit executive should establish?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should report their audit findings directly to the audit committee.

B.

To receive an outstanding performance rating, internal auditors are required to generate audit findings.

C.

Prior to hiring a new internal auditor, the chief audit executive must determine whether the auditor owns stock in the organization.

D.

Internal auditors are permitted to audit an entity managed by a close friend or relative, as long as they notify the chief audit executive.

Question 63

To achieve conformance with the Standards, the chief audit executive must include which of the following activities in the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Require board oversight of the QAIP.

B.

Assess Standards conformance for each individual engagement.

C.

Conduct a self assessment at least once every five years.

D.

Report the results of the QAIP to senior management

Question 64

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization's internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

Question 65

An internal auditor performed a consulting engagement last year which included assisting with management's design of controls over the procurement function. How should the chief audit executive plan an assurance engagement on the adequacy of the internal control system in the procurement function in the current year?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to another internal auditor on staff

B.

Outsource the engagement to ensure independence

C.

Harness the auditor's knowledge of the procurement function by assigning the engagement to the same internal auditor

D.

Postpone the engagement to the following year to ensure enough time has passed since the controls were designed

Question 66

According to MA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the Internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 67

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment

Question 68

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

Options:

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why the fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

Question 69

An organization sells products through distributors. The organization's chief audit executive insists that the organization's code of conduct be applicable to their distributors as well. Which of the following risks would this mitigate?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Market manipulation

C.

intellectual property leakage

D.

Reputational damage

Question 70

Which of the following would be considered a primary control to reduce the risk associated with setting up duplicate vendors?

Options:

A.

Receipt of a signed and approved vendor setup form.

B.

Segregation of duties between setting up vendors and making vendor payments.

C.

System validation and edit checks on vendor identification number

D.

A vendor setup policy and procedure.

Question 71

Which of the following is part of a fraud detection program?

Options:

A.

Whistleblower hotline.

B.

Authority limits.

C.

Background investigations

D.

Evaluation of compensation programs.

Question 72

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for a chief audit executive to include in the internal audit policy manual in order to promote objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors may conduct a financial effectiveness engagement in a business unit at any point after being transferred from that area.

B.

Internal auditors may conclude that a business unit's current control environment is adequate and effective if the review of the prior year's workpapers and audit report supports that conclusion.

C.

Internal auditors may conduct an engagement in a business unit at any point after providing a training workshop in that area.

D.

Internal auditors should limit the scope of an engagement if they become aware of a potential impairment of their objectivity in order to reduce the potential impact of the impairment on the engagement results.

Question 73

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding mentoring programs designed to assist internal auditors with their professional development?

Options:

A.

The mentor must have a higher position in the organization than the mentee

B.

An auditor s supervisor is best positioned to serve as the auditor's mentor

C.

Meetings between a mentor and a mentee should be formal and well documented

D.

Auditors at the same level may be assigned different mentors and some auditors may have no mentor

Question 74

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is a chief audit executive required to take with regard to reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Report external assessments upon completion of such assessments

B.

Report external assessments at least annually

C.

Report ongoing monitoring quarterly

D.

Report post-engagement reviews at least once every five years

Question 75

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective,

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

Question 76

Which of the following disclosures must the chief audit executive (CAE) include when communicating the results of the quality assurance and improvement program to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Authority and responsibility of the internal audit activity

B.

Hours and sources of continuing professional education

C.

Scope and frequency of both the internal and external assessments

D.

independence and objectivity impairments of the CAE

Question 77

Which of the following threatens internal audit objectivity'?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors are expected by senior management to identify a minimum of five major control weaknesses in each area audited

B.

Internal auditors are prevented from accessing information necessary to undertake their audit engagements

C.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the chief financial officer who previously led the internal audit activity

D.

The CEO requests the internal audit activity develop a charter that clearly delineates its purpose and responsibilities within the organization

Question 78

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards regarding the internal audit activity's purpose authority, and responsibility?

Options:

A.

Discussion and formal presentation of the internal audit charter to the board of directors

B.

Certification by external auditors on the purpose, authority and responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

Approval of senior management that the internal audit activity is functioning as originally designed

D.

Self-assessment of the internal audit activity completed by the chief audit executive

Question 79

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and investigation at a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 80

Which of the following represents an example of an ethical issue that the organization should address'?

Options:

A.

An employee discovered that there is no personal protective equipment at a temporary construction site

B.

An employee saw that a group of other employees were smoking in close proximity to petrol distribution tanks

C.

A supervisor insists that an employee complete time sheets regularly

D.

An employee received concert tickets from a vendor and asked whether she could keep them

Question 81

Which of the following parties would be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the organization's corporate social responsibility activities to reduce its carbon footprint?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive

B.

Facility operation manager

C.

Public relations manager

D.

Regulatory agency

Question 82

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor's application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

Question 83

Which of the following strategies would be the most effective to share an organization's risk of losses through foreign currency transactions related to the accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Using a hedging strategy.

B.

Implementing controls to follow up on deviations.

C.

Purchasing liability insurance.

D.

Purchasing foreign currency reserves.

Question 84

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

Question 85

Which of the following should be implemented to promote independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors do not review an area where they previously worked

B.

The internal audit charter is reviewed and updated annually

C.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

D.

Management does not influence the consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

Question 86

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred Into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible

C.

If it is a consulting engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment becausethe chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned

Question 87

Which of the following specifications in an internal audit charter is the most important factor in the internal audit activity’s independence?

Options:

A.

Description of internal audit activity's responsibilities

B.

Definition of internal auditing

C.

Statement of internal audit activity's authority

D.

Description of internal audit activity's reporting structure

Question 88

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Serves third parties that need reliable financial information from audit engagements

B.

Responds to the needs and desires of senior management and the board, but remains independent of areas under review

C.

Ensures the organization complies with laws and regulations in the area under review

D.

Is completely independent of senior management, the board and the area under review

Question 89

Which of the following is an example of impairment to internal auditor independence or objectivity'?

Options:

A.

Assurance engagements for functions over which the chief audit executive (CAE) has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

B.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities

C.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they have current responsibilities

D.

Consulting engagements for functions over which the CAE has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

Question 90

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization's corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization's department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time.

Question 91

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 92

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

Question 93

A business unit manager was impressed by the competence of the internal auditor who was conducting an assurance engagement in his area and the manager made the auditor an attractive job offer to begin after the audit was completed The auditor later told her auditor in charge that she was considering the offer. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was most likely violated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

No violation was committed

Question 94

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

Question 95

Which of the following statements is true regarding occupational fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee who diverts the organization's purchases for personal use is demonstrating asset misappropriation

B.

An employee who intentionally omits negative information in the financial statement disclosures is demonstrating an example of corruption

C.

An employee who made an error in estimating losses may have committed fraud even if the error was not intentional

D.

An employee who creates a denial of service in the organization’s computer systems is committing asset misappropriation

Question 96

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' knowledge, skills and other competencies?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must obtain competent advice and assistance if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to complete the audit engagement

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization and should have the expertise of a fraud investigator

C.

Internal auditors need to have basic knowledge of key IT risks and controls and available technology-based audit techniques in order to perform their assigned work

D.

The CAE must refuse a consulting engagement if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform all or part of the engagement

Question 97

Which of the following statements represents the most appropriate correlation between an organization's risk maturity and the internal audit activity’s consulting role in risk management processes?

Options:

A.

When an organization has a high level of risk maturity the internal audit activity is less likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

B.

When an organization has a low level of risk maturity, the internal audit activity is less likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

C.

When an organization has a high level of risk maturity the internal audit activity is more likely to provide consulting services related to risk management

D.

There is typically no correlation between an organization’s risk maturity and the extent to which the internal audit activity’s consulting role in risk management processes

Question 98

An auditor for a large wholesaler is evaluating the controls over the approval and oversight of credit sales. Which of the following procedures would be a control weakness?

Options:

A.

The credit department is responsible for approving shipments to all customers

B.

The finance committee of the board of directors periodically reviews credit standards

C.

Customers who fail to meet credit requirements must pay cash for shipments upon delivery

D.

The sales department is responsible for determining the credit ratings of customers

Question 99

Which of the following is most accurate concerning corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

A moral agent in an organization makes decisions that are based on the rules and regulations of the organization as they apply to human resources decisions

B.

The utilitarian approaching deciding on ethical dilemmas is concerned with choosing the simplest solution that will apply to the most people

C.

Ethics are not defined by laws but they are not a matter of free choice ethics are based on standards of conduct derived from shared principles and values

D.

The individualism approach to ethical decision making is focused on implementing a customized long-term outcome that is most beneficial for the entire organization

Question 100

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

Question 101

A new company’s risk management function is developing its cybersecurity risk management program Which of the following actions should be the first priority when developing the program?

Options:

A.

Start building a cybersecurity culture and set the desired behavior using a bottom-up approach

B.

Determine the cybersecurity framework that will establish and report on the effectiveness of the program

C.

Define the cybersecurity risk appetite and perform a cost-benefit analysis of the program

D.

Raise cybersecurity awareness across various departments outside of the IT department

Question 102

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan,

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 103

Which of the following is the best way for an internal auditor to demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to the same extent that another prudent auditor would under similar circumstances

B.

Seek feedback from the engagement supervisor during the engagement

C.

Execute internal audit work in such a manner as to provide absolute assurance of compliance

D.

Request and receive client feedback surveys during the engagement

Question 104

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 105

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top,

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities,

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

Question 106

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is required of an internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity should refrain from conducting an assurance engagement for which it lacks the necessary competencies or skills

B.

The chief audit executive must decline a consulting engagement or obtain competent advice and assistance if internal auditors lack the necessary competencies or skills

C.

The audit committee should ensure that the internal audit activity continuously improves its knowledge and skills in order to fulfill its responsibilities

D.

In today's business climate which is dominated by technology and big data, it is imperative that each staff internal auditor has detailed knowledge about IT risks and technology-based audit techniques

Question 107

Which of the following best describes the board’s role in establishing effective organizational governance?

Options:

A.

The board is involved in approving operational policy

B.

The board monitors key processes and procedures

C.

The board has oversight responsibility for organizational resources

D.

The board approves management's detailed plans and objectives

Question 108

Regarding assurance and consulting services provided by the internal audit activity which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The nature and scope of a consulting engagement are determined by the internal audit activity based on its risk assessment

B.

The nature and scope of an assurance engagement are subject to agreement with management of the area under review

C.

Both assurance services and consulting services can be focused on controls or performance or both

D.

The assurance engagement process ends with reporting

Question 109

Which of the following statements would typically be included in the responsibility section of the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will have free and unrestricted access to the chief executive officer, audit committee, and chairman of the board of directors.

B.

The internal audit activity shall develop a flexible audit plan, based on a risk assessment conducted at least annually and taking into consideration the risks or control concerns identified by management, and shall submit the plan to the board for approval.

C.

The chief audit executive shall obtain the necessary assistance of personnel in areas where audits are performed, as well as specialized services within or outside of the organization.

D.

The internal audit activity will not implement controls, develop procedures, install systems, prepare records, or engage in activities that may impair internal auditors’ judgments.

Question 110

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Question 111

Which of the following should catch the internal auditor's attention as a potential red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The accounting unit keeps detailed records and preserves supporting documentation in excess of company requirements

B.

One of the subsidiaries has more bank accounts than any other comparable subsidiary

C.

The same external audit firm has been with the company for three years without rotation

D.

The arithmetic median tenure of employees working at production facilities is 15 years

Question 112

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive discusses the internal audit charter with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To provide guidance and solicit feedback on managing the internal audit activity as expected by various stakeholders.

B.

To provide an understanding of the Mission of Internal Audit and The IIA's mandatory guidance elements.

C.

To provide an update on the internal audit activity's quality of engagement supervision.

D.

To provide information on existing internal audit planning, changes to the internal audit plan, and the rationale for the changes

Question 113

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is necessary for internal auditors to comply with the requirements for proficiency?

1. Sufficient consideration of current activities, trends, and emerging issues to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities.

2. Ability to provide relevant advice and recommendations to management and the board.

3. Understanding of key IT risks and controls and the ability to identify fraud using technology-based audit techniques.

4. Knowledge, skills, and other competencies necessary to perform individual responsibilities during the engagement.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

1, 2, and 3 only.

C.

1, 2, and 4 only.

D.

2, 3. and 4 only

Question 114

An internal auditor was completely honest with operational management when delivering unfavorable audit results. Which of the following best describes the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor demonstrated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Objectivity

C.

Competency

D.

Transparency

Question 115

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting and assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, the auditor must independently and objectively select the criteria for evaluation

B.

For a consulting engagement, internal auditors and management jointly agree on the adequate criteria needed to evaluate governance, risk management, and controls. This is not true of assurance engagements

C.

Engagement planning and fieldwork are similar for both types of engagements (there are no major differences) although the reporting process is different depending on which service is provided

D.

For a consulting engagement objectives must address governance risk management and control processes to the extent agreed upon with the client. This is not true of assurance engagements

Question 116

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the chief audit executive s responsibility for confirming to the board the organizational independence of the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

The CAE must do this at least annually

B.

The CAE must do this at least once every five years

C.

The CAE must do this upon completion of each external quality assessment

D.

The CAE should do this periodically in conjunction with a review of the internal audit charter

Question 117

Due to the increased operational responsibility of the CEO the chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO) What is the likely impact of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation in the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CFO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expertise of finance staff can be called upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 118

Which of the following internal control components has COSO identified as the most important?

Options:

A.

Information and communication

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Control activities

D.

Control environment

Question 119

Following a quality assurance review of a small internal audit activity, the external reviewer and the chief audit executive (CAE) cannot agree on the importance of several deficiencies noted during the review. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the reviewer to take?

Options:

A.

Remove the areas of disagreement from the scope of the engagement and seek informal compromises with the CAE.

B.

Issue the report to senior management, noting the deficiencies for immediate resolution.

C.

Issue the report, noting the deficiencies with comments that address the areas of disagreement.

D.

Request arbitration from the audit committee to resolve discrepancies prior to issuing the final report

Question 120

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

Question 121

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the application of internal audit proficiency?

Options:

A.

Management requests that the internal audit activity review and provide feedback on its strategic plans for a merger, but the chief audit executive (CAE) declines the engagement due to the team's lack of experience with mergers.

B.

A CAE reassigns auditors from other audits to perform testing on all of the fixed asset additions for a period, including amounts below the materiality level stated by external auditors.

C.

Due to the routine and recurring nature of bank branch audits, an audit manager often excludes detailed planning at the beginning of the audit and immediately performs fieldwork.

D.

During fieldwork, an auditor observed a lack of segregation of duties over cash management. The auditor reported this observation to his supervisor, who decided that the area should be examined in a subsequent audit.

Question 122

Which of the following would provide the best support for internal auditors to meet their continuing professional development requirements?

Options:

A.

Access to online internal audit and business skills courses.

B.

Records of self-assessment reports completed by the internal audit staff.

C.

Cosourcing arrangements with external providers on specific engagements.

D.

Performance reviews comparing internal auditors' achievements against specified goals.

Question 123

Which of the following is the best example of a computer forensic audit activity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor compared vendor addresses to employee home addresses.

B.

An internal auditor used analytical software to trace all disbursements processed on weekends.

C.

An internal auditor tried to circumvent the logical access controls of the purchasing system.

D.

An internal auditor recovered emails of an employee who was suspected of fraudulent activities

Question 124

Which of the following best demonstrates that an internal auditor is applying due professional care when planning an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Assessing the risk of noncompliance with laws and regulations

B.

Following the policies as prescribed by the internal audit manual.

C.

Advising management of the area under review on how to mitigate internal control risks.

D.

Conducting the engagement on the presupposition that fraud exists.

Question 125

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization’s foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, the fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client’s claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant, he fails to demonstrate competency.

Question 126

Which competency is required of all staff internal auditors prior to the commencement of an IT audit?

Options:

A.

The ability to assess IT governance.

B.

The ability to provide an explanation on the risk profile of the organization to the board and senior management.

C.

The ability to ensure that proposals for improvements to internal controls are balanced with organizational objectives and capabilities.

D.

The ability to assess the potential for fraud risk and identifying common types of fraud associated with the engagement.

Question 127

An investment advisory firm purchased professional liability insurance to offer protection from lawsuits brought by customers claiming they received poor or erroneous advice. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Mitigation.

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer.

D.

Avoidance

Question 128

An employee accepts cash payments from customers and does not record the sale. This is an example of which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Skimming

C.

Corruption.

D.

Lapping.

Question 129

Who is responsible for setting the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

External auditors.

B.

Chief risk officer.

C.

Operations management.

D.

Board of directors.

Question 130

Which of the following techniques should an internal auditor use in order to conduct an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Use technical language to establish credibility with the employee being interviewed

B.

Avoid straightforward questions to make the person being interviewed think before answering

C.

Prepare the next question while the interviewee is responding to demonstrate preparedness

D.

Appear confident but not arrogant during the interview to show professionalism

Question 131

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity’s responsibilities in providing consulting services?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is responsible for deciding the priority of consulting services in the internal audit plan

B.

The scope of consulting services is determined primarily by the internal auditor with input from management of the area under review

C.

The board defines the internal audit activity’s responsibilities over consulting activities

D.

Adding value to an organization requires the internal audit activity to initiate a consulting engagement

Question 132

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

Question 133

Which of the following activities aligns with The IIA's Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports to senior management for compensation decisions and communications of audit results to the board

B.

Final reports from consulting engagements show the summary of findings, and the internal auditor’s advice is clearly distinct and separate from management's decisions

C.

Internal auditors rotate through operations and management positions then perform audit engagements on these areas to ensure timely application of their knowledge

D.

Due to limited resources, internal auditors prioritize assurance on internal controls and risk management and exclude evaluating governance processes, which are deemed outside of their core responsibilities

Question 134

To assure that the technical proficiency of internal auditors is appropriate for the audit engagements to be performed, a chief audit executive should:

Options:

A.

Consider the scope of work and level of responsibility when establishing criteria for education and experience in filling internal audit positions.

B.

Ensure that each newly hired auditor is qualified in all of the disciplines needed to accomplish the department’s audit mission.

C.

Oversee a training program that matches the actual training provided with the interests of individual auditors.

D.

Require all of the audit staff to pursue a minimum number of continuing professional education hours each year

Question 135

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding ISO 31000?

Options:

A.

The key principles approach checks whether each element of the risk management process is in place.

B.

The framework is effective in addressing the organization's structure, size, and risk profile but not its culture objectives.

C.

The end point for improving an organization s approach to risk management should be a gap analysis that evaluates any changes.

D.

A combination of the three primary approaches to the framework generally yields the most information despite the complexity

Question 136

A significant number of employees expressed concerns of a hostile work environment within a large manufacturing plant, which is in contrast to the organization's stated culture of tolerance and open communication. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for an internal auditor to assess whether the organization supports a culture of tolerance and open communication?

Options:

A.

Assess plant employees' social media activity for specific messages related to tolerance and open communication

B.

Compare plant employees’ compensation and benefits with those at similar sized organizations that have a stated culture of tolerance and open communication.

C.

Evaluate organization policies and procedures for references related to encouraging tolerance and open communication.

D.

Conduct a meeting with all plant employees and management to discuss tolerance and open communication

Question 137

An internal audit team analyzed the organization's value-at-risk model during an assurance engagement and suggested several useful improvements. Management was impressed by the internal audit team’s work and requested additional actions. Which of the following requested actions would impact internal audit independence most severely if fulfilled?

Options:

A.

Assess the effectiveness of the model at least semi-annually.

B.

Modify model inputs and suggest courses of action based on outcomes.

C.

Employ acquired experience to test other models used by the company.

D.

Validate whether model outputs serve the purpose stated by the model.

Question 138

Which of the following conditions classifies an engagement as a consulting service provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement previously worked in the area under review and lacks objectivity.

B.

The internal audit engagement will involve providing an opinion on the effectiveness of controls.

C.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement was specifically requested by management of the area under review.

D.

he internal audit engagement involves only two parties: the internal auditor and the engagement client.

Question 139

A large commercial bank was fined by regulators for fraudulent practices when employees, over a period of time, opened thousands of new accounts for existing clients without the clients' consent. It was later found that employees were given unrealistic new account targets and were aggressively monitored by management on a daily basis.

Which of the following controls would have most likely reduced the likelihood of the fraudulent practice from occurring?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the current performance and compensation program.

B.

The performance of background investigations on all existing employees.

C.

The availability of fraud training to all employees.

D.

The availability of an employee whistleblower hotline

Question 140

Which of the following are considered root causes of fraud?

Options:

A.

Rationalization and corruption

B.

Corruption and opportunity

C.

Opportunity and perceived need

D.

Perceived need and weak internal controls

Question 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most critical to ensuring that an organization's risk management program remains effective over time?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a fully executed assurance role for the internal audit activity.

B.

Conducting risk evaluations that include ranking the relative importance of each risk.

C.

Establishing a risk management function and appointing a chief risk officer.

D.

Conducting a combination of ongoing risk reviews and individual evaluations.

Question 142

An engagement supervisor noticed that a newly hired internal auditor struggles with large data samples because he appears reluctant to apply available spreadsheet statistical functions and tends to perform testing of transactions manually In which of the following areas does the internal auditor most likely need training?

Options:

A.

Critical thinking.

B.

International Professional Practices Framework

C.

Professional ethics

D.

Business acumen

Question 143

Which of the following actions taken during an audit engagement is the best demonstration of an internal auditor's due professional care?

Options:

A.

Ensure that all financial information related to the engagement is included in the audit plan and examined for irregularities.

B.

Document all audit tests completely.

C.

Consider the possibility of noncompliance or irregularities at all times during an engagement.

D.

Notify the audit committee of any noncompliance or irregularity discovered during an engagement

Question 144

What should the chief audit executive do when the internal audit activity is found to be in nonconformance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign competent staff to the area under audit to remediate the nonconformance.

B.

Determine how the deviation impacted the overall scope of the internal audit activity.

C.

Meet with the board to gam an understanding of the board's expectations.

D.

Communicate the matter to the board at the time of the next external assessment.

Question 145

An internal auditor believes that the internal audit activity's independence is impaired. Which of the following actions should the internal auditor take first?

Options:

A.

Report the impairment to senior management

B.

Discuss the impairment with the audit manager

C.

Ascertain the best approach to disclose the impairment.

D.

Decide on the extent of impact of the impairment

Question 146

In which of the following situations may the internal audit activity report conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity has been in existence at least five years and has not completed an external assessment,

B.

An internal auditor was assigned to an audit engagement but did not meet individual objectivity requirements.

C.

The internal audit activity prepared an internal audit plan that was not risk-based.

D.

The internal audit activity has been in existence fewer than five years, but periodic self-assessments were conducted.

Question 147

Which of the following procedures will best help an internal auditor assess operating effectiveness of fraud prevention and detection controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking best practices

B.

Testing,

C.

Mapping,

D.

Interviewing

Question 148

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 149

A series of incidents over the past year reveals several members of senior management possess a limited understanding of the concept and impact of fraud. Which of the following would be the most effective way to approach this issue?

Options:

A.

The board should ask the internal audit activity to perform additional assurance engagements.

B.

A comprehensive fraud risk assessment and management program should be carried out.

C.

The organization should conduct training sessions on fraud, which should be attended by senior management and staff.

D.

Anti-fraud and whistleblowing policies should be implemented and their importance should be clearly stated.

Question 150

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

Question 151

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

Question 152

At a conference, an interna! auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization. The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers, and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards,

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 153

Which of the following needs to be established prior to undertaking an assessment of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Department performance standards.

B.

Remediation timeframes.

C.

Nonconformance disclosures.

D.

External assessment resources

Question 154

In which of the following ways can a chief audit executive demonstrate to the board that the internal audit activity collectively possesses all of the skills needed to complete its annual goals?

Options:

A.

Involve board members in hiring activities and request advice.

B.

Require all internal audit staff to complete the same training course on a general audit subject,

C.

Require senior auditors to obtain a professional certification.

D.

Provide a competency assessment of the internal audit staff.

Question 155

Which of the following best describes the type of risk that an adequately designed and effectively operating system of internal controls should mitigate?

Options:

A.

Net.

B.

Controllable.

C.

inherent,

D.

Residual.

Question 156

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

Question 157

Which of the following actions is a chief audit executive most likely to take in order to identify gaps in the internal audit activity’s knowledge, skills, and competencies?

Options:

A.

Complete a skills assessment of the internal audit activity based on. The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

B.

Develop a competency assessment tool for the internal audit activity based on The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

C.

Incorporate the basic criteria for competency of the internal audit activity into the job descriptions of potential internal auditors,

D.

Develop an internal audit activity plan for training internal auditors to perform required assurance and consulting activities.

Question 158

In which of the following ways could stakeholders be engaged in corporate social responsibility efforts?

Options:

A.

Investigation of health and safety incidents.

B.

Auditing of controls and management systems.

C.

Communication of disclosures and external reporting,

D.

Involvement in focus groups and complaint management

Question 159

Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk of fraud in the bidding process?

Options:

A.

Have a bidding committee open the tender bids.

B.

Restrict the time to submit tender bids.

C.

Keep minutes of pre-bid meetings.

D.

Allow the higher tenders to rebid.

Question 160

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

Question 161

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

Question 162

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

Question 163

The internal audit activity is asked to review the effectiveness of controls around the disposal of chemical waste. However, the internal auditors on staff lack the necessary skills to conduct this review. Which of the following would be the most appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who recently attended a three-day workshop on chemical waste disposal, and therefore has the most knowledge on the topic, should lead the engagement.

B.

A team of available internal auditors should be assembled and should consult with an external nonaudit expert on chemical waste disposal to plan and conduct the engagement.

C.

A team of the most knowledgeable auditors could be assembled and use the engagement work program from the previous year to gather additional insight regarding recommended audit procedures.

D.

A nonaudit employee from the chemical disposal area may share his expertise with the audit team, provided the internal audit manager conducts a detailed review of all engagement work performed.

Question 164

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

Question 165

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization’s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity's structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

In order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year.

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments.

Question 166

A chief audit executive (CAE) has no direct access to the board. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate way for the CAE to react?

Options:

A.

Ensure all subsequent audit reports include a disclaimer as to the lack of access to the board,

B.

Focus on operational audit work and disregard lack of direct access to the members of the board.

C.

Initiate changes to the internal audit charter to report to senior management for the time being,

D.

Engage in written communications with the board and present relevant issues in writing

Question 167

Upon joining the internal audit activity, each new auditor receives a copy of the audit handbook. Which of the following handbook policies has the greatest risk of compromising audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should obtain 80 hours of continuing professional education every two years, 20 of which should be audit-related, and the remainder may be operations-related.

B.

Internal auditors should rotate to other areas of the organization for nonaudit assignments to gain an understanding of the organization's operations.

C.

Internal auditors should have direct and unrestricted access to personnel and information throughout the organization and the governing board.

D.

Internal auditors should undergo annual performance appraisals conducted by the chief audit executive, who reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 168

If an internal auditor suspects fraud during an engagement which of the following is expected of the auditor?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the suspected activities to determine whether a forma! investigation is warranted,

B.

Immediately inform senior management and the board of the suspected fraud.

C.

Ascertain the level of resources needed to formally investigate the fraud, and proceed with the investigation if resources permit,

D.

Include in the engagement documentation all possible effects and the potential impact of the fraud to the organization

Question 169

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 170

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to Insure that all significant risks will be identified,

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist,

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost.

Question 171

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3,

B.

1 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 172

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization's policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors1performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits.

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements.

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 173

During a review of employee benefits, a staff internal auditor observed an ambiguity in the incentive compensation policy. If reported, it could negatively impact the internal auditor's compensation. Which of the following would encourage the internal auditor to be objective in his work?

Options:

A.

Periodic reinforcement of the internal audit activity's code of ethics disclosure practices.

B.

External assessments of the internal audit activity every five years.

C.

Audit committee review of every engagement report at the conclusion of the audit.

D.

Internal audit charter approved by the board.

Question 174

According to the 11A Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization.

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review.

Question 175

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization's board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 176

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes,

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 177

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as he are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each, and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary increase based on this information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity,

C.

Integrity.

D.

Confidentiality

Question 178

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit activity's reporting

Question 179

According to NA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed,

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight,

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff

Question 180

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

Question 181

The internal audit activity was asked to conduct an investigation for potential fraud in the treasury department and subsequently contracted with a forensic accountant to join the team for the engagement. Which of the following parties has the primary responsibility for resolving any fraud incidents found as a result of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive.

B.

Senior management.

C.

The forensic accountant.

D.

The legal department.

Question 182

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the board

B.

Internal auditors may not disclose personal data of the audit client

C.

Internal auditors may not accept gifts from management of the area under review

D.

Internal auditors must observe the law and make required disclosures

Question 183

Which of the following scenarios depicts an appropriate role for the internal audit activity to take regarding an organization's risk management process?

Options:

A.

Internal audit designs and implements the organization's controls to help manage risk.

B.

Internal audit sets the organization's risk tolerance and promotes awareness throughout the organization.

C.

Internal audit assesses whether the organization's risk management processes are effective.

D.

Internal audit is responsible for safeguarding the organization's assets and preventing loss from occurring.

Question 184

The chief audit executive (CAE) is drafting the annual internal audit plan and seeks input from senior management and the external auditor prior to submitting it for approval to the board. According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE's actions are likely to impair the Independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

The CAE acted appropriately, and the independence of the internal audit activity was not impaired.

C.

The CAE should have developed the audit plan without outside influence to maintain objectivity.

D.

The CAE acted appropriately, as he has authority to determine who reviews and approves the audit plan.

Question 185

Which of the following indicates that internal audit independence may be compromised?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor maintains a close personal relationship with operational management.

B.

Material observations were intentionally left out of the audit report.

C.

Internal auditors assigned to the audit engagement did not have the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform their responsibilities.

D.

An internal auditor failed to apply professional skepticism while performing audit tests in an area overseen by an experienced, reputable manager

Question 186

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor failed to expand the engagement and include managements preferences when determining the scope of an upcoming assurance engagement.

B.

An internal audit activity lacks the skills need to perform a high-risk security engagement included on the annual audit plan.

C.

A chief audit executive fated to perform a risk assessment prior to preparing the audit plan

D.

An internal audit activity has existed for two years and has not undergone external quality assessment

Question 187

An internal auditor was offered expensive tickets to a sporting event by the manager of an area that she was currently auditing. The auditor politely declined. Which of the following fundamental principles of the MA Code of Ethics did she display?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Independence.

C.

Competency.

D.

Objectivity

Question 188

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

Question 189

An organization allows the same individuals to physical access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile inventory movements

C.

internal auditors should review Vie frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels

D.

Management should established a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained

Question 190

Which of the following is an indicator that the organization s risk management process is effective?

Options:

A.

The organization s risk appetite mission, and objectives are dearly outlined.

B.

The organization s risk management practices are assessed as mature.

C.

The organization has adopted risk management frameworks and global models.

D.

The organization s significant risks are identified and adequately assessed

Question 191

In addition to her internal audit activity responsibilities, the chief audit executive has been asked to oversee the organization's insurance function. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Welcome the additional responsibility, as it represents an opportunity to gain more information for future audits.

B.

Revise the internal audit charter to include oversight of the insurance function, ensuring that all of her responsibilities are properly documented.

C.

Report the request to the board and recommend alternate processes to obtain assurance related to insurance activities.

D.

Promptly remove the organization's insurance function from the audit universe.

Question 192

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigate. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information evidence

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine me competencies needed and assess whatever team members have a conflict of interest.

Question 193

IT management requires all employees in the IT department to attend annual training on the department’s mission values and key performance measures This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge’s kills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 194

Wi ch of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed the last year

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistieblower hotline.

Question 195

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

Question 196

Which of the following actions best demonstrates an internal auditor exercising due professional care?

Options:

A.

Testing an entire population, even when a sample would suffice

B.

Using technology and data analysis techniques for efficiency

C.

Enhancing knowledge, skills, and other competencies through professional development

D.

Establishing audit objectives, performing audit tests, and implementing missing controls

Question 197

During an audit engagement of a large retail store, internal auditors noted significant discrepancies between available inventory and sales and suspect an abuse of cash register refunds and voids. Which of the following would be the most effective preventative control to reduce these losses?

Options:

A.

Ensure that returned merchandise is restocked to shelves or sent to the manufacturer by an independent employee.

B.

Call a sample of customers who returned merchandise to test the legitimacy of the returns and check refund amounts.

C.

Require that a manager use a reserved register code to approve voids or refunds.

D.

Analyze voids and refunds by employee, credit card number, and amount for unusual numbers, amounts, or patterns.

Question 198

The internal audit activity was denied access to expenditure and budget reports because they were considered to be confidential. This situation would result in which of the following limitations of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independence

B.

Integrity

C.

objectivity

D.

Authority

Question 199

Which of the following is a key determinant used by external auditors to decide whether they can rely on work performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The auditors' independence.

B.

The auditors' objectivity.

C.

The auditors' integrity.

D.

The auditors' confidentiality.

Question 200

Which of the following best describes a purpose for the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter authorizes the internal audit activity's reporting structure and clearly defines the roles of each internal auditor.

B.

The internal audit charter defines the roles and responsibilities of the chief audit executive, board of directors, and senior management.

C.

The internal audit charter authorizes access to records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to the performance of audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit charter defines the criteria by which the internal audit activity's performance will be evaluated

Question 201

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 202

According to MA guidance, which of the following is true with regard to the internal audit charter?

1. It specifies the minimum resources needed for assurance engagements.

2. It requires final approval from senior management.

3. It defines the internal audit activity's authority and responsibilities.

4. It describes the expectations for communicating the results of a quality assurance and Improvement program.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

Question 203

In its five years of existence, an internal audit activity conducted a single internal assessment of its quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP). The results of that assessment showed that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards. Prior to this, an external assessment of the internal audit activity's QAIP was conducted, which reported that the internal audit activity was in conformance with the Standards. Considering the two assessments, what would be the internal audit activity's current state of conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Conformance with the Standards.

B.

Nonconformance with the Standards

C.

Unable to determine conformance with the Standards.

D.

Partial conformance with the Standards

Question 204

The manager of the payroll department requested a review of the payroll process, but only wants the engagement to include processes related to approval of time worked. What type of activity is this?

Options:

A.

Financial assurance engagement.

B.

Operational consulting engagement.

C.

Compliance assurance engagement.

D.

Risk management consulting engagement.

Question 205

At what point in time can an organization conclude that the established organizational governance framework was correctly implemented?

Options:

A.

When the internal auditor conducts observations and fieldwork.

B.

When management completes the risk assessment.

C.

When the internal auditor evaluation shows its soundness.

D.

When the organization's goals and objectives are met.

Question 206

What is the primary reason a chief audit executive should dedicate time and resources to support continuing professional development of internal audit staff?

Options:

A.

To ensure that internal audit staff maintains high overall job satisfaction.

B.

To ensure that internal audit staff acquired continuing professional education credits timely.

C.

To ensure that top risks are mitigated to an acceptance level.

D.

To ensure that internal audit staff have the competency to address high-priority risks.

Question 207

In which of the following situations has the internal auditor violated the IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

An employee confided in an internal auditor and told him about fradulent activities. Although the employee asked for confidentially, the auditor disclosed her identity later during police questioning.

B.

While auditing payroll controls, an auditor was granted temporary access to salary data. The auditor referred to the acquired information while negotiating her work conditions three months later.

C.

Management considers an auditor to be highly competent and asked the audit to participate in an upcoming acquisition project. The auditor declined the request, calming a lack of knowledge.

D.

An internal auditor failed to acquire the continuing education credits needed for the year and requested that. The IIA change his certification status to inactive until the completed the required education activities.

Question 208

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of conformance or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity that has been in existence fewer than five years cannot Indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards because it has not yet undergone an external assessment.

B.

Once an external assessment validates conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity may continue to use the statement until the next external assessment.

C.

If it has been more than five years since the last external assessment was conducted, the Internal audit activity must cease indicating that it operates in conformance with the Standards.

D.

The chief audit executive must disclose every instance of noncompliance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards.

Question 209

Which of the following concepts is emphasized in the Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

Support of good governance and controls.

B.

Enhancement of organizational value.

C.

Protection of tangible and intangible assets.

D.

Provision of professional advisory and assurance services.

Question 210

Which of the following statements best represents the duo professional care that is required of internal auditor’s?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should perform assurance procedures to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

B.

Internal auditor should not perform consulting engagements for operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

C.

Internal auditors should consider the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

D.

Internal auditors should device internal audit programs to confirm that the results are accurate.

Question 211

It is important for the chief audit executive to consider the level of competence of the internal audit staff because their competence influences which of the following?

Options:

A.

The cost-benefit relationship of planned audits.

B.

Proficiency needed to carry out engagements.

C.

Achievement of the objectives of internal control.

D.

Quantity of the audits performed.

Question 212

An organization is implementing a new cybersecurity policy and has established a committee to ensure stakeholder alignment across the organization's infrastructure, network, and security teams. The head of the committee has asked the chief audit executive if the internal audit activity could play a role in these efforts. According to HA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

It is not appropriate for the internal audit activity to play a role because its independence must be protected.

B.

The internal audit activity should not participate because there are no IT auditors on staff.

C.

The internal audit activity is knowledgeable about risk and therefore should prioritize the organization's responses and control activities for the committee.

D.

The internal audit activity may assist the committee and consult with management on the organization's responses and control activities.

Question 213

Which of the following should play a leading role in overseeing the ethical atmosphere of an organization?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity

B.

Operating management

C.

Senior management

D.

Board of directors

Question 214

Which of the following statements is true regarding intangible assets?

Options:

A.

The amortization period of an intangible asset cannot exceed 20 years.

B.

The cost intangible assets with indefinite lives should be amortized.

C.

Intangible assets are categorized as having either a limited life or an indefinite life.

D.

Companies should record intangible assets at fair market value

Question 215

A chief audit executive ensures that the internal audit activity provides annual training to management on internal controls. Where is the nature of these services defined?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan.

B.

The audit report.

C.

The annual risk assessment.

D.

The audit charter.

Question 216

A whistle blower notified internal audit of a conflict of interest between an organization's employee and a major supplier. Which of the following steps should be undertaken first?

Options:

A.

Interview the employee identified by the whistleblower.

B.

Attain an understanding of the employee's role, responsibilities, and relationship with the supplier.

C.

Notify senior management, the board, and the external auditor about the alleged fraud

D.

Review all the orders issued to the supplier to investigate potential fraud.

Demo: 216 questions
Total 721 questions