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IIA IIA-CHAL-QISA Qualified Info Systems Auditor CIA Challenge Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 45 questions
Total 150 questions

Qualified Info Systems Auditor CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity's budgetand then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational managements view of risk objectives

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence

Question 2

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 3

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required

Question 4

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditors relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative Is a customer

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement

Question 5

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline

Question 6

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies

Question 7

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the Internal auditor wasassigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

Question 8

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization's inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is The auditor's concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

Incorrect rejection risk.

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

Question 9

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

increased access to the organization's employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization's key business processes.

D.

increased access to the organization's software and proprietary data.

Question 10

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework.

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped free on board (FOB) destination to another organization.

B.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods received on consignment from another organization.

C.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point from another organization.

D.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods sent on consignment to another organization

Question 12

A bicycle manufacturer incurs a combination of fixed and variable costs with the production of each bicycle. Which of the following statements is true regarding these costs?

Options:

A.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 15 percent, the variable cost per unit will increase proportionally

B.

The fixed cost per unit will vary directly based on the number of bicycles produced during the production cycle.

C.

The total variable cost will vary proportionally and inversely with the number of bicycles produced during a production run.

D.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 30 percent, the fixed cost per unit will decline.

Question 13

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 14

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement^

Options:

A.

Esteem by colleagues.

B.

Self-fulfillment.

C.

Sense of belonging in the organization

D.

Job security.

Question 15

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors arealways new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model

Question 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to ensure that all significant risks will be identified.

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist.

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost

Question 17

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is amore specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

Question 18

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top.

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

Question 19

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following Is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 20

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

Question 21

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

Question 22

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

Question 23

A multinational organization has asked the internal audit activity to assist in setting up the organization's risk management system The chief audit executive (CAE) agrees to take on the engagement as a consultant. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the CAE to undertake?

Options:

A.

Coordinate and facilitate risk workshops for management to attend

B.

Establish the degree of risk appetite for management to accept.

C.

Set risk Indicators and mitigation plans for management to Implement.

D.

Determine the number of significant risks for management to report to the board

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity

B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.

C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.

D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors

Question 25

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

1.There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

2.The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

3.The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

4.The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

Question 27

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

Options:

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

Question 28

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 29

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit acth/lty's reporting

Question 30

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

Question 31

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review

Question 32

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a chantable contribution from the organization Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities

Question 33

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

Question 34

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting

Question 35

Which of the following is a true statement regarding whistleblowing?

Options:

A.

Whistleblowing is one of several possible ethical structures an organization can undertake to encourage ethical behavior.

B.

Whistleblowing programs help employees deal with ethical questions and instill ethical values into everyday behavior

C.

Whistleblowers are current or former employees who are disgruntled and looking to retaliate.

D.

Whistleblowers should inform the organization about actual criminal circumstances, not assumed allegations.

Question 36

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action Which of the following describes managements action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

Question 37

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an Important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction Based on this Information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

1.Effect of the control weakness.

2.Cause of the control weakness

3.Conclusion on the control weakness.

4.Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4

C.

1,3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 38

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagements planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques

Question 39

Operational management In the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap.

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 40

An organization uses the management-by-objectives method, whereby employee performance is based on defined goals. Which of the following statements is true regarding this approach?

Options:

A.

It is particularly helpful to management when the organization is facing rapid change.

B.

It is a more successful approach when adopted by mechanistic organizations.

C.

it is more successful when goal-setting Is performed not only by management, but by all team members, including lower-level staff

D.

it is particularly successful in environments that are prone to having poor employer-employee relations

Question 41

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Exception reports

C.

Training programs,

D.

Supervisory review.

Question 42

What would be the effect if an organization paid one of its liabilities twice during the year, in error?

Options:

A.

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity would be understated.

B.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be unaffected

C.

Assets and liabilities would be understated.

D.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be understated, but liabilities would be overstated

Question 43

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization's suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs

Question 44

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

Options:

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

Question 45

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

Demo: 45 questions
Total 150 questions