New Year Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70percent

IIA IIA-CFSA Certified Financial Services Auditor Exam Practice Test

Demo: 76 questions
Total 511 questions

Certified Financial Services Auditor Questions and Answers

Question 1

Bank may serve as trustee or custodian for pension and profit sharing plans that self- employed individuals establish for them selves and their employees. These types of trust are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Defined benefit plans

B.

Keogh plans

C.

Individual retirement account

D.

None of these

Question 2

___________ result from a failure to follow the logic of a series of statements.

Options:

A.

Deductive fallacies

B.

Inductive fallacies

C.

Corrective controls

D.

None of These

Question 3

The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:

Options:

A.

Professional competence

B.

Professional skepticism

C.

Subject awareness

D.

Opinion sharing

Question 4

Following elements should be documented in the audit scope EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Time period to be covered by audit tests

B.

Available data:

No. of records

Locations

Need to create data

Form

Reliability

C.

Prioritizing risks

D.

Both A and B

Question 5

If principal is paid on a loan after it has been placed on non-accrual status, the bank must determine whether it should record the payment as a reduction of:

Options:

A.

The loan principal amount

B.

Income interest

C.

Both of these

D.

Any one of these

Question 6

The risk analysis process involves all of the following steps EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Identifying auditable activities (e.g. programs, accounts, contracts, transactions)

B.

Identifying relevant risk factors (e.g. Complexity of programs, size of program, adequacy of internal control system)

C.

Prioritizing Risks

D.

Determine the need for external assistance of outsourcing

Question 7

Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:

Options:

A.

2.25 or less

B.

2.75 or less

C.

2.00 or less

D.

3.25 or less

Question 8

Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?

Options:

A.

Scope of an audit

B.

The use of testing

C.

Over- generalization

D.

Unidentifiable risks

Question 9

Which one of the following is an internal control component?

Options:

A.

Compliance control

B.

Control activities

C.

Financial Reporting Controls

D.

Communication channels and network

Question 10

The main purposes of the audit survey are to assist with following goals and tasks EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Develop preliminary estimates of time and resource requirements

B.

Determine whether further auditing is necessary

C.

Documenting key control activities

D.

Identify potential critical control points, control deficiencies or excessive controls

Question 11

Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible accounts and charge them off against the reserve of:

Options:

A.

Unearned loan revenue

B.

Loan losses

C.

Loan expenses

D.

All of these

Question 12

Engagement client management often has a negative perception of audit process; therefore, communication throughout the audit process is essential to alleviate some of the concerns of management. The very first step in communicating the audit information with the client is:

Options:

A.

Entrance conference

B.

Formal notification of the audit

C.

Explanation of the scope of audit

D.

None of these

Question 13

Data gathering and evaluation during field work includes:

Options:

A.

Gaining and understanding of the activity, system, or process under review

B.

Observing conditions and operations

C.

Interviewing people and examining assets and accounting, and other operational business, and other operational records.

D.

All of these

Question 14

There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

C.

True- In specific conditions

D.

False- In specific conditions

Question 15

The extent to which an organization has implemented controls to minimize the actual occurrences of the risk determines the vulnerability to the risk actually occurring, or the

“_______”

Options:

A.

Inherent Risk

B.

Understanding Risk

C.

Control Risk

D.

Disguised Risk

Question 16

Deposit accounts are:

Options:

A.

Interest bearing accounts

B.

Non-interest bearing accounts

C.

Tax bearing accounts

D.

Either A or B

Question 17

Which of the following is/are included in the specific steps for auditing short-term investments?

Options:

A.

Ensure that policies and procedures for short-term trading activities exist, are periodically reviewed for changes, and are properly approved

B.

Review to ensure that trading policies include allowed and restricted trading instruments, approved traders

C.

Review the short-term trading activity to ensure compliance with trading policies and procedures and applicable regulatory environment

D.

All of the above

Question 18

Deposit accounts are either interest bearing or non-interest bearing. Interest bearing accounts includes _________ and ___________. The types of accounts bear interest for a fixed period of time and are known as time deposits.

Options:

A.

Savings accounts, certificates of deposit

B.

Savings accounts, term deposit

C.

Certificate of deposit, Savings accounts and certificates of deposit

D.

Savings accounts, certificates of deposit and non-interesting bearing account

Question 19

Workpapers serve as the connecting link between the audit assignment, the auditor’s fieldwork, and the final report. Most importantly, the workpapers document the auditor’s conclusions and the reasons those conclusions were reached. Workpapers also provide a basis for demonstrating compliance with the IIA’s Standards. Among other things, workpapers may include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Planning documents and audit procedures

B.

Analysis and test of transactions, processes, and account balances

C.

Results of substantive testing

D.

Audit correspondence that documents the audit conclusions reached

Question 20

Although generally attached to bonds or preferred stock, warrants can also be attached to other securities, such as speculative stock. Warrants allow holder to buy more stock as its value appreciates. Below are the terms that must be considered in order to understand warrants EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Warrants are generally attached to a bond or preferred stock and carry the right to purchase common stock at a fixed price

B.

Detached warrants can be traded and have their own value based on the current market andexercise prices. If a warrant is not detachable, it has no individual market value

C.

Warrants typically expire after a number of years

D.

When exercised, a warrant is relinquished in return for shares of common stock at the current market price

Question 21

Feasibility studies and cost benefit analysis Approval process for initiating system development and implementation of systems that are developed Change control procedures for new system developments and modifications to existing systems to ensure that only authorized changes are moved to production General and detailed design specification Project review, including periodic milestones reviews and post-implementation reviews Contracting procedures that include the requirements for describing expected project deliverables such as system components and source codes, project timeframes, estimated hours, and the maximum allowable expenses for each phase These are some of the standards of:

Options:

A.

System development methodology

B.

Output controls

C.

Security controls

D.

Collection of Classified information

Question 22

These are used to speculate on the direction of interest rates. The trading of these contracts is limited. The future market is the main trading market for securities based on interest-rate movements. What are these?

Options:

A.

Put Options

B.

Call Options

C.

Interest rate options

D.

Index options

Question 23

“An element of information, from a transaction to an entire system, is appropriately entered, developed, changed, or used with proper authority.” Which of the following element of integrity supports this statement?

Options:

A.

Authorized

B.

Accurate

C.

Complete

D.

Timely

Question 24

In the United States, banks are required to report cash deposits that exceed $10,000 a day to any one account, regardless of how many branches or deposits have been used in the transactions. Banks are also required to report when cash is used to purchase cashier’s checks, money orders, traveler’s checks, or bank checks in excess of $3000. In the Untied States, accounts are federally insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporations (FDIC). An individual is limited to __________ in insurance coverage at each bank (including branches).

Options:

A.

$50,000

B.

$75,000

C.

$100,000

D.

$10,000

Question 25

Visa and MasterCard have teamed up to develop payment card Industry ( PCI) Data Security standards to govern the safekeeping of account information. Which of the following is NOT out of the major goals of PCI standards?

Options:

A.

Build and maintain secure network

B.

Protect Card holder Data

C.

Maintain vulnerability management program and regularly monitor and test networks

D.

Annual review of an information security policy

Question 26

Exception reports generated by the lending institution are designed to identify past-due loans. Auditors should review these exception reports to identify an unusually high number of exceptions and old or unusual exceptions that might indicate that:

Options:

A.

The institution is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

B.

The institution is following up on exceptions in a timely manner

C.

The auditor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

D.

The competitor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

Question 27

The purpose of audits of financial statements is to issue an opinion on the fairness of the financial statements and to evaluate all of the following assertions (explicit or implicit) by management EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Existence or occurrence assertions address whether available information addresses actualtransactions, assets, and liabilities

B.

completeness assertions address whether all material financial information is included infinancial statements

C.

Rights and obligations assertions address whether the entity has legal rights to the assets andobligations to the liabilities disclosed on the financial statements

D.

Presentation and disclosure assertions address whether the elements of the financialstatements are properly organized, classified and disclosed

Question 28

When looking at account receivables auditors should ensure:

Options:

A.

Receipts are processed and recorded timely

B.

Collections are handled by an outside party

C.

Disbursements are made right after the original authorizations

D.

Collections are handled by a brokerage house

Question 29

All members of a group insurance plan (group insureds) are covered under a single contract, known as a master group insurance contract. The employer or entity purchasing the group insurance is known as group policyholder. In _____________, group insureds do not pay any premium for the coverage.

Options:

A.

Noncontributory plan

B.

Contributory plan

C.

Life insurance

D.

Preexisting provision condition

Question 30

Group insurance policies typically include a preexisting condition provision that excludes:

Options:

A.

Coverage for conditions that the individual received treatment for during specified period prior to the effective date of coverage

B.

Provisions to prevent individuals covered under more than one plan from receiving enefits greater than the expense incurred

C.

Provisions to prevent mutual fund covered under more than one plan from receiving enefits greater than the expense incurred

D.

Coverage for conditions that the individual received treatment for after specified period rior to the effective date of coverage

Question 31

As interest rate change, the price of an issued bond also changes. The change in price has an inverse relationship to changes in interest rates (if one rises, the other falls). If new bond issues are paying a higher interest rate than existing bonds, investors will not purchase existing bonds unless:

Options:

A.

The bond is discounted

B.

The new bond prices fall

C.

The new issue is finished

D.

The interest rate declines

Question 32

A bond currently priced at $1,250 with a 10% nominal yield of $100 would have a current field of _____________. The same bond priced at $800 would have a current yield of __________.

Options:

A.

9%, 12.5%

B.

12.5%, 9%

C.

8%, 12.5%

D.

12.5%, 8%

Question 33

__________ is a tool to transfer qualified investments from one account to another. In order to retain certain special tax treatments, funds may not be co-mingled with other types of assets, including other IRAS.

Options:

A.

Rollover IRA

B.

simple IRA

C.

Conduit IRA

D.

SEP IRA

Question 34

Pension plans that an Employer establishes for retired or disabled employees, regardless of whether an employee contributes, are known as:

Options:

A.

Defined benefit plans

B.

Guaranteed Pension benefits

C.

Pre-Pension Schemes

D.

None of the above

Question 35

Checking account may pay interest. Checking accounts that pay interest are referred as a:

Options:

A.

Saving deposit

B.

Direct deposit

C.

MMDAS (money market deposit account)

D.

Negotiable order of withdrawal account (NOW)

Question 36

Other asset categories are mentioned in:

Options:

A.

Audited Balance sheet

B.

Unaudited balance sheet

C.

Balance sheet only when they are material

D.

Other books of account

Question 37

The primary objective/s of ECB is/are:

Options:

A.

To maintain price stability

B.

To support the general economic policies in the community with a view to contributing to the achievement of the objectives of the community

C.

To achieve a high level of employment and sustainable and non-inflationary growth

D.

None of these

Question 38

Banks should account for trading securities at market value. Any changes in cost should be regarded as a/an:

Options:

A.

Realized gain

B.

Unrealized loss

C.

Unrealized gain or loss

D.

none of these

Question 39

Notes are debt instruments issued to:

Options:

A.

A broker

B.

An agent

C.

A single investor

D.

A single investor managing a portfolio

Question 40

CAMEL is an acronym that comes from the key areas of a financial institution’s safety and soundness examination. It stands for:

Options:

A.

Capital adequacy, Asset Quality, Management, Earning and Liquidity

B.

Credit Rating, Asset management, Employee turnover and liabilities

C.

Capital adequacy, Asset management, Earning and liabilities

D.

None of these

Question 41

Insurance in law and economics, is a form of risk management primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Hedge again risk of potential financial loss

B.

Lock the risk of potential financial losses

C.

Both the statements are one and the same

D.

None of these

Question 42

Types of barrowed funds include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Rollover funds

B.

Debentures

C.

Discounting or Advancing through counts with a federal bank

D.

Mortgage payable

Question 43

A contract whereby one undertakes to indemnify another or pay a specified amount upon determinable contingencies is called:

Options:

A.

Demand draft

B.

Loan

C.

Insurance

D.

Term deposit

Question 44

Preliminary prospectuses are often called:

Options:

A.

Red hearing

B.

Introductory Notes

C.

Initial Coverage

D.

None of these

Question 45

Banks often make loans to officers, directors, employees, and principal shareholders. Discloser of these related-party transactions is required:

Options:

A.

If they are material to the loan portfolio

B.

In relation to total stockholder’s equity

C.

If they are presented as other liabilities

D.

Either A or B

Question 46

The primary regulatory entities for banking include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Federal Reserve System

B.

Office of the comptroller of currency

C.

State Regulatory System

D.

ALM union (Asset/Liabilities management union)

Question 47

Life insurance includes all of following the products EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Mortgage life insurance

B.

Straight life insurance

C.

Specialty life insurance

D.

Permanent life insurance

Question 48

The mission of the NAIC is to assist State Insurance regulators, individually and collectively, in serving the public interest and achieving all the following fundamental insurance regulatory goals in a responsive, efficient and cost effective manner, consistent with the wishes of its members EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Protect the public interest

B.

Promote competitive markets

C.

Support and improve State regulation of insurance

D.

None of these

Question 49

Some of the risks associated with bond funds are all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Credit Risk

B.

Interest Rate Risk

C.

Payment Risk

D.

Liquidity Risk

Question 50

A gold producer wants to hedge his loses attributable to a fall in the price of gold for his current gold currency. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Currency Swaps

B.

Commodity Swaps

C.

Interests rate Swaps

D.

All of these

Question 51

Option’s in major types of life insurance is/are:

Options:

A.

May be renewable or convertible to a whole life policy (term life insurance)

B.

May pay dividends, may provide a reduced paid-up policy. Partial cash surrenders permitted (whole life insurance)

C.

May pay dividends minimum death benefit partial cash surrenders permitted

D.

All of these

Question 52

The approximate per-share NAV plus any fees the fund imposes is the price:

Options:

A.

That investors pay to purchase mutual fund

B.

That investors receive on redemptions

C.

Per share NAV

D.

All of these

Question 53

I – In term life insurance premium increase with age no cash value.

II- In whole life insurance high cost is involved if you surrender early. Usually no cash value for at least three to five years. So, may not meet short-term needs.

III – Universal life insurance is also same a whole life and buyer assumes greater risk due to program flexibility. Low interest rates can affect cash value and premiums.

These are the __________ of different types of life insurances.

Options:

A.

Policy benefit

B.

Protections

C.

Disadvantages

D.

Premiums

Question 54

Life insurance that can be made valid up to a certain age or period is called ___________. This insurance coverage continues up until an agreed time without having to be renewed.

Options:

A.

Voluntary Life insurance

B.

Straightforward risk insurance

C.

Savings insurance

D.

All of these

Question 55

Money market funds bond funds (also called “fixed income” funds) , and stock funds (also called equity funds) are the categories of:

Options:

A.

Mutual funds

B.

Professionally managed portfolio

C.

Hedge funds

D.

None of these

Question 56

Endowment policies are similar to___________ policies in that premiums are usually level through the term of policy and the policies build cash values.

Options:

A.

Permanent life insurance

B.

Straight life insurance

C.

Whole life insurance

D.

Universal life insurance

Question 57

Adequate procedures and controls associated with swap transactions should exist to help minimize the risks inherent in transaction process. Example/s of these controls may include:

Options:

A.

A daily reconciliation of traders’ positions should be performed

B.

To minimize market risk in hedge transactions:

There should be independent sign-off procedures for hedging models

All hedge strategies should be clearly defined

All software and products should be secure and temper resistant

C.

All transactions should be authorized and affirmed

D.

All of these

Question 58

There are some investment companies, known as exchange-traded funds or ETFS, which are legally classified as open-end companies or UITs. EFTs differ from traditional open-end companies and UITs because:

Options:

A.

Pursuant to SEC exemptive orders

B.

Shares issued by ETFs Traded on a secondary market

C.

Are lonely redeem able in very large blocks (Blocks of 50,000 shares for example)

D.

All of these

Question 59

General Market indices in the commodities market with which many people would be familiar include:

Options:

A.

Goldman Sachs Commodities Index (GSCI)

B.

Commodities Research board

C.

Acme Tool & Die

D.

Both A&B

Question 60

In which of the following ways are calls and put options used by the options investor in purchase and sales transaction?

I. A long call allows the investor to purchase the underlying security at the specified strike price after the option expiration date

II. Along put allows the investor to sell the underlying security at the specified strike price until the option expiration date

III. An investor who is short a call is at the underlying security at the specified strike price if a call option is exercised after the option expiration date

IV. An investor who is short a put is obligated to buy the underlying security at the specified strike price if a put option is exercised by the option expiration date

Options:

A.

I and II only

B.

I and III only

C.

II and III only

D.

II and IV only

Question 61

Customer accounts:

Ensure that the firm is exercising due diligence in the opening and supervision of customer accounts. The procedures should be formalized in writing and in accordance with the rules and regulations of the appropriate regulatory authority.

Ensure that daily customer positions and option exercises are in accordance with the limits established by the appropriate exchange. Verify that commissions generated by customer trades are properly calculated and posted to the general ledger.

Options:

A.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of stock and options

B.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of swaps

C.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of bonds

D.

None of these

Question 62

Which of the following are NOT common funding vehicles used by insurers to invest in retirement plan assets as they are accumulated?

Options:

A.

Group deferred annuities.

B.

Deposit administration contracts.

C.

Separate account contracts.

D.

Keogh plans.

Question 63

In which of the following ways would the writer of an uncovered call usually make a profit?

I. The call expires

II. The underlying stock splits

III. The underlying stock goes up in price

IV. The underlying Stock goes down in price

Options:

A.

III only

B.

I and IV only

C.

II and IV only

D.

I, II, and III only

Question 64

A derivative with a convex payoff-profile at some point before the option’s maturity is a simple plan vanilla option. As the option becomes progressively more-in-the money, the rate at which the position makes money increases until a sympathetically approaches the linear payoff of the future. Similarly, as the option becomes progressively more out-of – the money, the rate at which the position loses money decreases until that rate becomes zero. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Spot rate

B.

Non linear derivate

C.

Linear derivate

D.

None of these

Question 65

For example, $50,000 five-year policy might decrease to $40,000 in benefits payable the second year, to $30,000 the third year, to $20,000 the fourth year, and to $10,000 in the final year. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Level term insurance policies

B.

Decreasing term life insurance policies

C.

Modified premium whole life policies

D.

First-to-die policies

Question 66

Asset/liability management is a planning tool designed to maximize earnings. ALM tries to create optimal risk/reward decisions and focuses on creating prices that achieve a desired spread. A sound ALM policy must manage many types of risks such as:

Options:

A.

Credit risk

B.

Liquidity risk

C.

Capital risk

D.

All of these

Question 67

Back-office operations are _____________ as offshore operations which establish business entities in tax-free export zones or offshore centers.

Options:

A.

Almost same

B.

Same

C.

Not the same

D.

None of these

Question 68

All of the following are financial instrument EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Prepaid capital

B.

Debt securities

C.

Equity securities

D.

Insurance polices

Question 69

An intelligent risks management platform approaches risk from the:

Options:

A.

Higher level

B.

Moderate level

C.

Low/ operational level

D.

Both A and B as it depends

Question 70

Which one of the following Factors does NOT ensure the financial health and security of the organization?

Options:

A.

Asset management and protection

B.

Capital allocation management

C.

Financial risk analysis and management

D.

None of these

Question 71

Universal life policies are a form of permanent life insurance that has flexible premiums, flexible face amounts, and separate pricing for the three major pricing categories. Which of the following is/are out of those categories?

Options:

A.

Mortality charges based on the insurer’s risk classification

B.

Internet rate paid on the cash value

C.

Expenses associated with administering the policy

D.

All of these

Question 72

To limit strategic risk management should ensure proper balance between the:

Options:

A.

Mortgage company’s willingness to accept risk and its supporting resources and control

B.

Internal operations and possibility of litigation

C.

Managerial capacities and capabilities and delivery networks

D.

All of these

Question 73

The tax implications are to be considered in case of life insurance. As, you can take out in chunks to supplement the income, and minimize tax burden, while keeping the majority still under the tax differed status (Not to mention the benefit of Roth IRA).So, the end result of what you have is for disposable income is once again better with the:

Options:

A.

401K

B.

Whole life Insurance

C.

Term life Insurance

D.

None of these

Question 74

Main areas within financial services are:

Options:

A.

Banking

B.

Stock Exchange

C.

Operations

D.

All of these

Question 75

Historical simulation and model based approach are the methods to calculate:

Options:

Question 76

Which of the following best suits in place of question mark?

Options:

A.

Risk spectrum

B.

Risk platform

C.

Risk levels

D.

All of these

Demo: 76 questions
Total 511 questions