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IIA IIA-ACCA ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 90 questions
Total 604 questions

ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

The following transactions and events occurred during the year:

- $300,000 of raw materials were purchased, of which $20,000 were returned because of defects

- $600,000 of direct labor costs were incurred.

- S750.000 of manufacturing overhead costs were incurred.

What is the organization's cost of goods sold for the year?

Options:

A.

$1.480.000

B.

$1 500 000

C.

$1,610.000

D.

$1650 000

Question 2

The process of scenario planning begins with which of the following steps?

Options:

A.

Determining the trends that will influence key factors in the organization's environment.

B.

Selecting the issue or decision that will impact how the organization conducts future business.

C.

Selecting leading indicators to alert the organization of future developments.

D.

Identifying how customers, suppliers, competitors, employees, and other stakeholders will react.

Question 3

Which of the following price adjustment strategies encourages prompt payment?

Options:

A.

Cash discounts.

B.

Quantity discounts.

C.

Functional discounts.

D.

Seasonal discounts.

Question 4

Which of the following factors would reduce dissatisfaction for a management trainee but would not particularly motivate the trainee?

Options:

A.

A sense of achievement.

B.

Promotion.

C.

Recognition.

D.

An incremental increase in salary.

Question 5

Which of the following would not impair the objectivity of internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Management assurance on risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on behalf of management.

C.

Providing assurance that risks assessed are correctly evaluated.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 6

Which of the following engagement observations would provide the least motivation for management to amend or replace an existing cost accounting system?

Options:

A.

The distorted unit cost of a service is 50 percent lower than the true cost, while the true cost is 50 percent higher than the competition's cost.

B.

The organization is losing $1,000,000 annually because it incorrectly outsourced an operation based on information from its current system.

C.

The cost of rework, hidden by the current system, is 50 percent of the total cost of all services.

D.

50 percent of total organizational cost has been allocated on a volume basis.

Question 7

Which of the following is a disadvantage of selecting a commercial software package rather than developing an application internally?

Options:

A.

Lack of flexibility.

B.

Incompatibility with client/server technology.

C.

Employee resistance to change.

D.

Inadequate technical support.

Question 8

Which of the following is a characteristic of just-in-time inventory management systems?

Options:

A.

Users determine the optimal level of safety stocks.

B.

They are applicable only to large organizations.

C.

They do not really increase overall economic efficiency because they merely shift inventory levels further up the supply chain.

D.

They rely heavily on high quality materials.

Question 9

What must be monitored in order to manage risk of consumer product inventory obsolescence?

1. Inventory balances.

2. Market share forecasts.

3. Sales returns.

4. Sales trends.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 3 only

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true regarding the resolution of interpersonal conflict?

Options:

A.

Unrealized expectations can be avoided with open and honest discussion.

B.

Reorganization would probably not help ambiguous or overlapping jurisdictions.

C.

Deferring action should be used until there is sufficient time to fully deal with the issue.

D.

Timely and unambiguous clarification of roles and responsibilities will eliminate most interpersonal conflict.

Question 11

A supervisor receives a complaint from an employee who is frustrated about having to learn a new software program. The supervisor responds that the new software will enable the employee to work more efficiently and with greater accuracy. This response is an example of:

Options:

A.

Empathetic listening.

B.

Reframing.

C.

Reflective listening.

D.

Dialogue.

Question 12

An organization has recorded the following profit and expenses:

Profit before interest and tax

$200,000

Sales

$2,300,000

Purchases of materials

$700,000

Interest expenses

$30,000

If the value-added tax (VAT) rate is 20 percent and the corporate tax rate is 30 percent, which of the following is the amount of VAT that the organization has to pay?

Options:

A.

$34,000

B.

$51,000

C.

$60,000

D.

$320,000

Question 13

In an organization where enterprise risk management practices are mature, which of the following is a core internal audit role?

Options:

A.

Giving assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.

B.

Developing the risk management strategy for the board's approval.

C.

Facilitating the identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Coaching management in responding to risk.

Question 14

Organization X owns a 38 percent equity stake in Organization Y. Which of the following statements is true regarding the financial treatment for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Y should be listed as an investment asset on X's balance sheet

B.

X must consolidate the financial statements for both organizations

C.

Y should be reported as a footnote to X's financial statements

D.

Y should not be reported by X as X does not have a controlling interest

Question 15

Unsecured loans are loans:

Options:

A.

That do not have to be repaid for over one year.

B.

That appear to be too risky for most lenders to consider.

C.

Granted on the basis of a company's credit standing.

D.

Backed by mortgaged assets.

Question 16

A global business organization is selecting managers to post to various international (expatriate) assignments. In the screening process, which of the following traits would be required to make a manager a successful expatriate?

1. Superior technical competence.

2. Willingness to attempt to communicate in a foreign language.

3. Ability to empathize with other people.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 17

In which type of business environment are price cutting strategies and franchising strategies most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Embryonic, focused.

B.

Fragmented, decline.

C.

Mature, fragmented.

D.

Competitive, embryonic.

Question 18

Which of the following is not included in the process of user authentication?

Options:

A.

Authorization.

B.

Identification.

C.

Verification.

D.

Validation.

Question 19

Which of the following are typical audit considerations for a review of authentication?

1. Authentication policies and evaluation of controls transactions.

2. Management of passwords, independent reconciliation, and audit trail.

3. Control self-assessment tools used by management.

4. Independent verification of data integrity and accuracy.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 20

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity (IAA) regarding IT governance?

1. The IAA does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2. The IAA must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

3. The IAA may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

4. The IAA may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 21

Which of the following is true regarding the COSO enterprise risk management framework?

Options:

A.

The framework categorizes an organization's objectives to distinct, non overlapping objectives.

B.

Control environment is one of the framework's eight components.

C.

The framework facilitates effective risk management, even if objectives have not been established.

D.

The framework integrates with, but is not dependent upon, the corresponding internal control framework.

Question 22

An organization decided to install a motion detection system in its warehouse to protect against after-hours theft. According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes this risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Reduction.

C.

Elimination.

D.

Sharing.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is true regarding a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) environment?

Options:

A.

There is a greater need Kr organizations to rely on users to comply with policies and procedures.

B.

With fewer devices owned by the organization, there is reduced need to maintain documented policies and procedures.

C.

Incident response times are less critical in the BYOD environment. compared to a traditional environment

D.

There is greater sharing of operational risk in a BYOD environment.

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 25

According to IIA guidance on IT. which of the following plans would pair the identification of critical business processes with recovery time objectives?

Options:

A.

The business continuity management charter.

B.

The business continuity risk assessment plan

C.

The business impact analysis plan

D.

The business case for business continuity planning

Question 26

An organization is considering mirroring the customer data for one regional center at another center. A disadvantage of such an arrangement would be:

Options:

A.

Lack of awareness of the state of processing.

B.

Increased cost and complexity of network traffic.

C.

Interference of the mirrored data with the original source data.

D.

Confusion about where customer data are stored.

Question 27

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a zero-based budget?

Options:

A.

A zero-based budget provides estimates of costs that would be incurred under different levels of activity.

B.

A zero-based budget maintains focus on the budgeting process.

C.

A zero-based budget is prepared each year and requires each item of expenditure to be justified.

D.

A zero-based budget uses input from lower-level and middle-level managers to formulate budget plans.

Question 28

Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication?

Options:

A.

Filtering.

B.

Communication overload.

C.

Similar frames of reference.

D.

Lack of source credibility.

Question 29

Which is the least effective form of risk management?

Options:

A.

Systems-based preventive control.

B.

People-based preventive control.

C.

Systems-based detective control.

D.

People-based detective control.

Question 30

A multinational organization has multiple divisions that sell their products internally to other divisions. When selling internally, which of the following transfer prices would lead to the best decisions for the organization?

Options:

A.

Full cost

B.

Full cost plus a markup.

C.

Market price of the product

D.

Variable cost plus a markup

Question 31

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

Question 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

Question 33

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

Question 34

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 35

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

Question 36

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

Question 37

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 38

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 39

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 40

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 41

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

Question 42

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

Options:

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the "communicate" phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

Question 43

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

Question 44

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 45

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

Question 46

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 47

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

Question 48

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 49

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

Question 50

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 51

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner's approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

Question 52

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 53

Which of the following statements is false regarding audit criteria?

Options:

A.

Audit criteria should be consistent across audit assignments.

B.

Audit criteria should represent reasonable standards against which to assess existing conditions.

C.

Audit criteria should provide flexibility but allow identification of nonadherence.

D.

Audit criteria should equate to good or acceptable management practices.

Question 54

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

Question 55

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 56

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

Question 57

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive's request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization's audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

Question 58

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

Question 59

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

Question 60

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

Question 61

A manufacturing line supervisor joins the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational job assignment and is assigned to an accounts receivable audit. With regard to this assignment, which of the following should be the primary concern of the audit manager?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Individual independence.

C.

Individual objectivity.

D.

Organizational independence.

Question 62

Which of the following actions best demonstrates that an internal auditor is exercising due professional care?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs thorough reviews and provides absolute assurance of regulatory compliance.

B.

The auditor is alert to the possibility of fraud and activities where irregularities are most likely to occur.

C.

The auditor recommends improvements for all of the organization's procedures and practices.

D.

The auditor is cognizant of reducing travel expenses by combining a personal vacation with a business trip.

Question 63

What is the purpose of a secondary control?

Options:

A.

It replaces primary controls that are either ineffective or cannot fully mitigate a risk.

B.

It partially reduces the residual risk level when a key control does not operate effectively.

C.

lt combines with other controls to help reduce significant risk exposures to an acceptable level.

D.

It helps to ensure the completeness and accuracy of automated controls in a system environment.

Question 64

An internal auditor is performing analytical reviews as part of an audit of a supermarket's merchandising department. Because the economy has declined since midyear, the auditor can expect to encounter which of the following?

Options:

A.

Higher inventory turnover.

B.

Higher operating margin.

C.

Lower obsolete stock disposal.

D.

Lower sales volume.

Question 65

Which of the following best explains why integrity is a necessary personal quality for internal auditors at all levels?

Options:

A.

Internal auditor integrity enables stakeholders to constantly question the work of the internal audit activity.

B.

Internal auditor integrity enables the internal auditor to avoid being challenged by any party in the organization.

C.

Internal auditor integrity enables the internal audit activity to be able to demonstrate independence.

D.

Internal auditor integrity enables users of internal auditors' work to make important business decisions.

Question 66

Non-statistical sampling does not require which of the following?

Options:

A.

The sample to be representative of the population.

B.

The sample to be selected haphazardly.

C.

A smaller sample size than if selected using statistical sampling.

D.

Projecting the results to the population.

Question 67

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

Question 68

A headquarters-based internal auditor has been sent to a major overseas subsidiary to conduct various engagements. Initially, the internal auditor spends time to become familiar with local customs and organization's practices while embarking on the first engagement. Which of the following competencies does the internal auditor exercise?

Options:

A.

Communication.

B.

Persuasion and collaboration.

C.

Business acumen.

D.

Governance, risk, and control.

Question 69

With regard To IT governance, which of the following is the most effective and appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluate the skills and experience of potential chief information officer candidates to assess the best fit based on the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the organization's governance standards and assess IT-related activities to identify gaps and develop policies, ensuring alignment with the organization's risk appetite.

C.

Assist management in interpreting complex IT-related privacy and security risk exposures and evaluating potential mitigation strategies.

D.

Assess whether governance activities are aligned with the organization's risk appetite and take into consideration emerging risks.

Question 70

To fill a critical vacancy, an internal auditor is assigned temporarily to a nonaudit role in the purchasing department, where she worked previously before joining the internal audit activity. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding these circumstances?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should review all work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment to ensure no impairments.

B.

The CAE may conduct audits in the purchasing department during the auditor's temporary assignment.

C.

The auditor should obtain the CAE's approval as to the nature and scope of the duties she is permitted to perform during her temporary assignment.

D.

Any work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment must conform to the internal audit charter.

Question 71

Which of the following activities should the chief audit executive perform to ensure compliance with an organization's code of conduct?

Options:

A.

Act as an adviser to the committee responsible for reviewing violations of the code.

B.

Review and adjudicate all violations of the code of conduct.

C.

Lead the committee responsible for the oversight of the code.

D.

Implement a system of procedures to inform all employees of the code.

Question 72

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least compliant with the requirements regarding an internal auditor's need for objectivity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor assessed the effectiveness of controls over payroll software, which he had helped implement with a previous employer.

B.

An internal auditor participated in an audit of controls around absenteeism, despite providing some consultation on controls in this area earlier in the year.

C.

An internal auditor performed an assurance engagement for the effectiveness of accounts payable access controls, one of which he previously helped to design.

D.

An internal auditor, previously employed in the quality assurance operations area, performed a consulting engagement for the operations manager.

Question 73

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are considerations of due professional care when an internal auditor conducts a formal consulting engagement?

1. The complexity of the work required.

2. The needs and expectations of the client.

3. The potential value of the engagement compared to the effort.

4. Information regarding assumptions and procedures to be employed.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 74

Which of the following is an example of collusion?

Options:

A.

An employee includes a faked receipt in his expense claim, and the claim is signed by the employee's manager.

B.

A vendor inflates the price of an item and remits a portion of the excess to the purchasing manager.

C.

A vendor sends a duplicate invoice with a new invoice number, and the accounts payable system fails to detect the duplication.

D.

An employee works with the IT manager to develop a program for identifying duplicate invoice payments.

Question 75

Which of the following situations is most likely to impair internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor reports both functionally and administratively to the chief financial officer (CFO).

B.

An internal auditor, who was an accounts receivable intern for the organization three years prior, performs an audit of the accounts receivable cycle.

C.

According to policy, the internal auditor must obtain approval from the CFO prior to requesting information for internal audit purposes.

D.

An internal auditor performs an audit in a department that is led by the auditor's close friend.

Question 76

Which of the following is a common type of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

Unauthorized overtime.

B.

Fictitious employees.

C.

Unearned bonuses or commissions.

D.

Skimming.

Question 77

Which of the following controls could an internal auditor reasonably conclude is effective by observing the physical controls of a large server room?

Options:

A.

Adequate signs are in place to assist in locating safety equipment.

B.

Servers are secured individually to their racks by locks.

C.

Foam fire extinguishers are operable to protect against electrical fires.

D.

Swipe card access is required to gain access to the server room.

Question 78

Which of the following responsibilities would fall under the role of the chief audit executive, rather than internal audit staff or the audit manager?

Options:

A.

Manage and support a quality assurance and improvement program.

B.

Maintain industry-specific knowledge appropriate to the audit engagements

C.

Set clear performance standards for internal auditors and the internal audit activity.

D.

Apply problem-solving techniques for routine situations.

Question 79

An auditor identifies three errors in the sample of 25 entries selected for review (a 12 percent error rate). Based on this result, the auditor assumes that approximately 59 of the total population of 492 entries are incorrect. To reach this assumption, the auditor has used a technique known as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Variability tolerance.

B.

Ratio estimation.

C.

Stratification.

D.

Acceptance sampling.

Question 80

The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning to conduct an internal assessment of the internal audit activity (IAA). Part of this assessment will include benchmarking. According to IIA guidance, which of the following qualitative metrics would be appropriate for the CAE to use?

1. Average client customer satisfaction score for a given year.

2. Client survey comments on how to improve the IAA.

3. Auditor interviews once an audit has been completed.

4. Percentage of audits completed within 90 days.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 81

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to MA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

Options:

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees.

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why The fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

Question 82

Which of the following is an example of a risk management avoidance response?

Options:

A.

Exiting a marketplace.

B.

Recalling a product.

C.

Obtaining product insurance.

D.

Outsourcing production.

Question 83

Which of the following statements is true about The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework?

Options:

A.

The core competencies outlined in the framework are not expected of a person undertaking an entry-level position as an internal auditor.

B.

The framework is designed to be used primarily by chief audit executives that are developing indicators to measure the performance of the internal audit activity for which they are responsible.

C.

The framework lists the core competencies internal auditors should possess before attempting to attain The IIA's Certified Internal Auditor certification.

D.

The framework describes competencies needed for individual internal auditors, but not those necessary at the chief audit executive level.

Question 84

The security department uncovered what appears to be a complex fraud in the accounting department. The CEO has requested the internal audit activity to investigate the fraud. If the internal audit staff lacks the expertise to conduct the investigation, how should the chief audit executive proceed?

Options:

A.

Disclose the deficiency, and request that the investigation be reassigned to the first line of defense.

B.

Proceed with the investigation, as internal auditors are not required to have fraud expertise.

C.

Outsource the sensitive investigation to a third-party consultant with fraud expertise.

D.

Select a member of the accounting department who is not involved in the fraud to join the investigation team in a consulting capacity.

Question 85

Which of the following options is the most cost-effective and efficient way for internal auditors to keep current with the latest developments in the internal audit profession?

Options:

A.

Attending annual professional conferences and seminars.

B.

Participating in on-the-job training in various departments of the organization.

C.

Pursuing as many professional certifications as possible.

D.

Maintaining membership in The HA and similar professional organizations and subscribing to relevant email updates or news feeds.

Question 86

Which of the following is the best way to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Conduct anti-fraud training.

B.

Perform background investigations.

C.

Implement process controls.

D.

Activate a whistleblower hotline.

Question 87

A large trucking organization wants to reduce traffic accidents by improving its system of internal controls.

Which of the following controls is correctly classified?

1. Review of speeding violations to identify repetitive locations and drivers is an example of a preventive control.

2. Defensive driver training is an example of a directive control.

3. The installation of tracking devices in delivery vehicles is an example of a corrective control.

4. Providing a vehicle driver handbook is an example of a detective control.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 88

A chief audit executive (CAE) is selecting an internal audit team to perform an audit engagement that requires a high level of knowledge in the areas of finance, investment portfolio management, and taxation. If neither the CAE nor the existing internal audit staff possess the required knowledge, which of the following actions should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Postpone the audit until the CAE hires internal audit staff with the required knowledge.

B.

Ask the audit committee to decide the course of action.

C.

Select the most experienced auditors in the department to perform the engagement.

D.

Hire consultants who possess the required knowledge to perform the engagement.

Question 89

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a rationalization as the root cause of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Managers who have been with the organization for several decades become aware that newly hired, younger managers are being moved more quickly into senior positions.

B.

The controller at a nationwide manufacturing company recently opted to no longer require two-week mandatory vacations for accounting staff.

C.

Security cameras that monitor cash handling at the register are not functioning.

D.

The organization is slowly phasing out three mature products that produce the highest commissions for the sales staff.

Question 90

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment.

Demo: 90 questions
Total 604 questions