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Huawei H35-260 HCSA-Field-Transmission & PTN V1.0 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 48 questions
Total 326 questions

HCSA-Field-Transmission & PTN V1.0 Questions and Answers

Question 1

What are the values of each wavelength in the composite signal that the spectrum analyzer is mainly used for?

Options:

A.

Optical power

B.

Signal to Noise Ratio

C.

Center wavelength

D.

Dispersion value

Question 2

The device IP addresses of gateway network elements and non-gateway network elements must be set in the same network segment

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 3

Which of the following statements about 802.1Q is wrong?

Options:

A.

The TPID value in the 802.1Q Ethernet frame structure is 8100

B.

In theory, the value range of VLAN ID is 0-4095

C.

There are only 4 VLAN priorities in the 802.1Q Ethernet frame structure

D.

802.1Q Ethernet frames are 4 bytes longer than normal Ethernet frames

Question 4

The characteristic of the open DWDM system is that there are no special requirements for the optical interface of the multiplexing terminal, and only these interfaces are required to comply with the optical interface standard

recommended by ITU-T. The DWDM system adopts wavelength conversion technology to convert the optical signal of the multiplexed terminal into a specific wavelength, and the optical signal of different terminal equipment is converted into

different wavelengths that comply with ITU-T recommendations, and then multiplexed.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 5

If an error occurs in the SDH network, the service signal recovered after the signal is decapsulated must have an error.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 6

Which of the following statements about MST functional modules are true?

Options:

A.

MST is both the source and sink of MS

B.

MST implements BIP-8 statistical calculation of B2 bytes.

C.

MST returns bit error information, but does not return a specific number of bit errors.

D.

MST provides its rdenire channel.

Question 7

optâ…¸ Datacollector supports black box fault data collection of multiple products. Which of the following products is not supported?

Options:

A.

NG SDH

B.

WDM

C.

ocs

D.

PTN

Question 8

Which of the following statements about ESD protection measures is false?

Options:

A.

All personnel entering the computer room should wear anti-static shoes, anti-static clothing, etc.

B.

Use anti-static tools, such as: anti-static wrists, anti-static tweezers, pullers, etc.

C.

Controlling humidity has little effect on reducing static electricity

D.

All conductors in the computer room must be grounded reliably, including computer terminals and other equipment, and an anti-static workbench must be set up

E.

Static sources such as non-anti-static plastic bags, non-anti-static bubble films, and rubber should be kept away from ESD sensitive devices and sensitive boards, at least 30cm away.

Question 9

When the optical cable between the FIU and the FIU is faulty, what are the optical layer alarms reported by the downstream station?

Options:

A.

MUT LOS

B.

OSC_LOS

C.

R_LOS

D.

OSC RDI

Question 10

Which of the following descriptions of the electrical layer multiplexing and mapping steps of ODU0 is wrong?

Options:

A.

After mapping and multiplexing, the 2 ODU0 signals can be finally multiplexed into 1 OTU1IV signal

B.

After mapping and multiplexing of 8 ODU0 signals, it can be finally used as 1 OTU2V signal

C.

After mapping and multiplexing, 34 channels of ODU0 signals can be finally multiplexed into 1 channel of OTU3V signals

D.

After mapping and multiplexing, 80 channels of ODU0 signals are finally multiplexed into 1 channel of OTU4V

signals

Question 11

To create a unicast BFD session between two IP addresses in a PIN network, which of the following must be satisfied?

Options:

A.

IP address routing is reachable

B.

The message sending interval of both parties is the same

C.

The "remote identifier" of the local end and the "local identifier" of the remote end

D.

IP addresses at both ends must be in the same network

segment

Question 12

Which one of the following is not necessary to establish a GE-level service path on the network management?

Options:

A.

Complete OSC path

B.

Complete ODU1 Path

C.

Complete OMS Path

D.

Complete OCH Path

Question 13

Where in the L2/L3 node is the VLAN in the Layer 2 header stripped in the packet sent by the base station in the LTE solution?

Options:

A.

L3VE sub-interface

B.

Network side interface

C.

Network side interface

D.

LOOPBACK interface

Question 14

When TCAT adds points, it recalculates the Tunnel and distributes the configuration. Which of the following information is being modified?

Options:

A.

The name of the Tunnel

B.

Tunnel jump information

C.

Tunnel the sink node of

D.

The source node of the tunnel

Question 15

After the optical cable is cut, the optical power is normal and there is no ETH_LOS alarm, but the TUNNEL_LOCV alarm is not cleared. What is the most likely cause?

Options:

A.

Equipment failure

B.

The optical cable fusion sequence is wrong

C.

The fiber optic cable is blocked

D.

Different steps to alert

Question 16

Which of the following descriptions about the reasons for the continuous adjustment of network element pointers is correct?

Options:

A.

The network element is located at the SDH/PDH boundary

B.

The frequency difference between the network element clock and the network clock

C.

There is a phase difference between the network element clock and the network clock

D.

The NE clock works in hold mode

Question 17

What are the possible reasons for the unsuccessful OCH creation by the path method?

Options:

A.

Missing service layer path

B.

Source, sink but inconsistent half-wavelength configuration

C.

The data on the device side and the remote side of the network are not synchronized

D.

The time on the device side and the network element side is not synchronized

Question 18

Which of the following LSRs are passed by an LSP?

Options:

A.

Egress

B.

Lable

C.

Ingress

D.

Transit

Question 19

Which of the following descriptions about the daily maintenance SOP is wrong?

Options:

A.

PTN cartridges are recommended to be backed up at least once a week

B.

PTN box device requires daily database backup

C.

Hardware alarms should be cleared in time

D.

PTN7900 requires cleaning the dust filter once a year

Question 20

CAR is deployed on PTN equipment. Which of the following descriptions is wrong?

Options:

A.

The value of PIR is required to be greater than or equal to CIR

B.

The unit of CBS/PBS is Bytes

C.

CBS bursts are marked in yellow

D.

Supports setting the processing mode for CAR-processed packets

Question 21

When using OptiX Datacollector to collect data, it can be collected by network element, which means to collect the fault data of all boards below the network element, or it can be collected by single board to collect

the fault data of a single board under the network element.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 22

A company has a class C IP address segment 198.160.110.0/24. The company has 6 departments, each department is located in a different subnet, and the number of hosts in each subnet

is the same as 25-30. Which of the following can be used as the subnet mask to reasonably plan the P address space?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.0

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.224

Question 23

For ODUK SNCP protection, which of the following types does not apply to the pass-through site being an electrical relay site?

Options:

A.

SNC/I

B.

SNC/N

C.

SNC/S and SNCN

D.

SNC/S

Question 24

The router works on the third layer (network layer) of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Which of the following is the main job it completes?

Options:

A.

Binary Data Streaming

B.

Physical Media Access

C.

Addressing and Routing

D.

Establish turbulent-to-turbulent connections

Question 25

Arrayed waveguide grating optical multiplexer and demultiplexer has the advantages of small wavelength interval, large number of channels, flat passband, etc. It is very suitable for ultra-high-speed, large-capacity wavelength division

multiplexing systems.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 26

Which of the following statements about the FEU board is false?

Options:

A.

The FIU board does not process monitoring information

B.

The FIU can complete the access and release of the OSC channel

C.

Using ESC, OTM station needs a FIU

D.

Using OSC, both OLA station and OADM station need two FIUs

Question 27

In the PTN equipment, what is the default TAG mark of the Ethernet port?

Options:

A.

Tag Aware

B.

Access

C.

Hybrid

Question 28

The key technology in the PTN network is IP/MPLS technology. How many levels can MPLS labels be nested?

Options:

A.

1st floor

B.

3 floors

C.

10 floors

D.

Theoretically infinite nesting

Question 29

When PTN carries LTE services, it forwards packets based on MPLS label switching. In the MPLS label, which identification field can be used as a PTN to distinguish the label

at the bottom of the stack?

Options:

A.

Label ID

B.

BS

C.

EXP

D.

TTL

Question 30

The services carried by PWE3 need to be sensed by the internal nodes of the PSM network.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 31

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the optical layer interfaces OTM-nm and OTM-nrm of OTN?

Options:

A.

n represents the number of wavelengths carried by the maximum capacity,

B.

m represents the rate. Value can be 1.2 or 3.

C.

r means OTM without OSC function

D.

OTM-nr.m with OSC signal is OTM-nm.

Question 32

The purpose of setting the upper and lower threshold alarms for performance monitoring through professional network management does not include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Easy to analyze historical traffic

B.

If the data exceeds the upper and lower limits, the alarm will be reported to the network management as soon as possible

C.

In the report, the data that exceeds the reading value can be identified by the red mark

D.

Facilitates quick troubleshooting

Question 33

IEEE 802.1Q defines the structure of VLAN tags, including TPID, PRI, CR, and VLAN ID. Which of the following is used to classify service

priorities?

Options:

A.

VLAN ID

B.

CR

C.

PRI

D.

TPID

Question 34

Which of the following is a common wavelength in optical communication?

Options:

A.

850nm.1310nm.1500nm

B.

850nm, 1310nm.1550nm

C.

850nm, 1330nm, 1550nm

D.

800nm, 1310nm, 1550nm

Question 35

PTN's ACR time sodium and 1588 clock can achieve time synchronization.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 36

Which of the following types of protection is electrical layer protection?

Options:

A.

Optical Line Protection QLP

B.

Tributary SNCP Protection

C.

Client side 1+1 protection

D.

+1 protection inside the board

Question 37

Which statement about MPLS OAM is wrong?

Options:

A.

The hardware supports the transmission of messages

B.

Support real-time monitoring of performance events such as packet loss rate and delay

C.

Can be used to trigger protection switching

D.

Tunnel's OAM and PW OAM are related and affect each other

Question 38

Which of the following is the electrical layer overhead of OTN?

Options:

A.

OPUk

B.

ODUK

C.

OCh

D.

OTUK

Question 39

Which of the following services can IMA provide protection for?

Options:

A.

TDM business

B.

ATM Services

C.

E-Line Business

D.

E-LAN service

Question 40

The DCN red copper feature between network elements of PTN, which VLAN number is used by default for DCN self-communication between network elements.

Options:

A.

1024

B.

2048

C.

4094

D.

4096

Question 41

In the field record of VRRP technology used in PTN network, what factors are included in the final election result of VRRP Master?

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

Port MAC address

C.

Preemptive Mode

D.

VRRP group ID

Question 42

When configuring the L3VPN service, which operation will cause the service configuration to fail?

Options:

A.

The IP address configured before the Layer 3 port is added to the UNI of the L3VPN

B.

Create the UNI port from the base station direction as a VLAN aggregation sub-interface

C.

Enable ARP proxy on VLAN aggregation sub-interfaces

D.

The IPs of the two service access ports in the direction of the base station are the same IP

Question 43

Which of the following options is not the cause of the R-LOF alarm?

Options:

A.

The received signal is attenuated too much

B.

The signal sent by the peer station has no frame structure

C.

The receiving direction of the board is faulty

D.

Broken fiber

Question 44

In Huawei's PTN7900 LTE solution, which of the following protection methods are used in the L2VPN part?

Options:

A.

IP/VPN FRR

B.

MC-PW APS

C.

MC-LAG

D.

VPN FRR

Question 45

When configuring SxCS board for OSN3500. Which of the following is the access capacity of a fully configured subrack?

Options:

A.

35G

B.

58.75G

C.

80G

D.

155G

Question 46

Which of the following descriptions are correct?

Options:

A.

CD1 can access and process 2 channelized STM-1 services

B.

L12 interface board can be installed in the slot of OpiX PTN 1900

C.

EFG2 can provide 2 GE electrical ports

D.

L12 can provide 16 E1 interfaces

Question 47

What types of reports are generated by the Inspector inspection tool?

Options:

A.

Client Official Report

B.

External reporting

C.

Engineer's Report

D.

Internal Reporting

Question 48

Which of the following statements about 100G coherent PDM-QPSK modulation is incorrect?

Options:

A.

The essence of QPSK modulation is to reduce the baud rate of the optical signal by half without reducing the line rate by selecting 4 possible values in the phase of the optical field.

B.

PDM-QPSK technology is the main modulation code technology for 100G transmission, which can reduce the line rate of 112Gb/s to the baud rate of 28Gbaud/s, greatly reducing the loan requirements for (optical)

electrical devices.

C.

PDM polarization multiplexing technology is adopted, which has better nonlinear tolerance than 40GePDM-BPSK.

D.

PDC-QPSK supports DCMfree and DCM system applications, and supports smooth upgrade from existing 10G/40G network to 100G system.

Demo: 48 questions
Total 326 questions