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ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 191 questions
Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies?

Options:

A.

Organizational objectives and risk tolerance

B.

Risk assessment criteria

C.

IT architecture complexity

D.

Enterprise disaster recovery plans

Question 2

In order to improve situational awareness, there is a need to deploy technology that can give a real-time view of security events across the enterprise. Which of the following tools represents the BEST choice to achieve this awareness?

Options:

A.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), routers, and server alerts

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), firewalls, switches, and system compliance tools

C.

Virtualized servers, routers, firewalls, and system logs

D.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), firewalls, and Vulnerability Management Systems (VMS)

Question 3

You assess the corporate culture and determine there is a pervasive opinion that the security program limits business performance. What is the MOST effective approach to reshape corporate culture to adopt security as a norm?

Options:

A.

Cite corporate policy and collaborate with individuals to review audit reports

B.

Explain how other similar organizations have been compromised

C.

Understand the business and focus your efforts on enabling operations securely

D.

Communicate compliance requirements and financial penalties

Question 4

An employee successfully avoids becoming a victim of a sophisticated spear phishing attack due to knowledge gained through the corporate information security awareness program. What type of control has been effectively utilized?

Options:

A.

Management Control

B.

Technical Control

C.

Training Control

D.

Operational Control

Question 5

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 6

Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?

Options:

A.

Trademark

B.

Patent

C.

Research Logs

D.

Copyright

Question 7

Which of the following metrics would be MOST effective for measuring the effectiveness of a newly implemented change control process?

Options:

A.

Total unrequested changes

B.

Unplanned system outage trends

C.

Duration of planned outages

D.

Monthly count of rejected change requests

Question 8

A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.

B.

Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.

C.

Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.

D.

Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.

Question 9

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

This global retail company is expected to accept credit card payments. Which of the following is of MOST concern when defining a security program for this organization?

Options:

A.

International encryption restrictions

B.

Compliance to Payment Card Industry (PCI) data security standards

C.

Compliance with local government privacy laws

D.

Adherence to local data breach notification laws

Question 10

Using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol enables a client in a network to be:

Options:

A.

Provided with a digital signature

B.

Assured of the server’s identity

C.

Identified by a network

D.

Registered by the server

Question 11

Which level of data destruction applies logical techniques to sanitize data in all user-addressable storage locations?

Options:

A.

Purge

B.

Clear

C.

Mangle

D.

Destroy

Question 12

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

How can you reduce the administrative burden of distributing symmetric keys for your employer?

Options:

A.

Use asymmetric encryption for the automated distribution of the symmetric key

B.

Use a self-generated key on both ends to eliminate the need for distribution

C.

Use certificate authority to distribute private keys

D.

Symmetrically encrypt the key and then use asymmetric encryption to unencrypt it

Question 13

Which of the following are primary concerns for management with regard to assessing internal control objectives?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Availability, Integrity

B.

Compliance, Effectiveness, Efficiency

C.

Communication, Reliability, Cost

D.

Confidentiality, Compliance, Cost

Question 14

Which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) below BEST describes the performance of risk management, and includes a five-stage risk management methodology.

Options:

A.

ISO 27001

B.

ISO 27002

C.

ISO 27004

D.

ISO 27005

Question 15

What is the PRIMARY weakness of a Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)?

Options:

A.

It is not used very often

B.

It is not always precise

C.

It is not effective for mid-sized investments

D.

A positive result is an indication that the effort should be pursued

Question 16

To have accurate and effective information security policies how often should the CISO review the organization policies?

Options:

A.

Every 6 months

B.

Quarterly

C.

Before an audit

D.

At least once a year

Question 17

What process is used to identify and collect information to support legal requests?

Options:

A.

Evidence submission

B.

Data sharing

C.

Electronic discovery

D.

Information relegation

Question 18

What are the three PRIMARY constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Scope, time, and cost

B.

Time, quantity, and technology

C.

Cost, quality, and people

D.

Quality, deliverables, and cost

Question 19

As the CISO, you have been tasked with the execution of the company’s key management program. You

MUST ensure the integrity of encryption keys at the point of generation. Which principal of encryption key

control will ensure no single individual can constitute or re-constitute a key?

Options:

A.

Dual Control

B.

Separation of Duties

C.

Split Knowledge

D.

Least Privilege

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

Question 21

Why is it vitally important that senior management endorse a security policy?

Options:

A.

So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.

B.

So that employees will follow the policy directives.

C.

So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.

D.

So that they can be held legally accountable.

Question 22

The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the organization has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and over budget. Using best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals.

Which of the following needs to be performed NEXT?

Options:

A.

Verify the scope of the project

B.

Verify the regulatory requirements

C.

Verify technical resources

D.

Verify capacity constraints

Question 23

Which of the following is considered the foundation for the Enterprise Information Security Architecture (EISA)?

Options:

A.

Asset classification

B.

Security regulations

C.

Information security policy

D.

Data classification

Question 24

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 25

As the Chief Information Security Officer, you want to ensure data shared securely, especially when shared with

third parties outside the organization. What protocol provides the ability to extend the network perimeter with

the use of encapsulation and encryption?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 26

What standard would you use to help define key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

GDPR

C.

ISO 31000

D.

NIST SP 800-55

Question 27

Acceptable levels of information security risk tolerance in an organization should be determined by?

Options:

A.

Corporate legal counsel

B.

CISO with reference to the company goals

C.

CEO and board of director

D.

Corporate compliance committee

Question 28

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

Question 29

The remediation of a specific audit finding is deemed too expensive and will not be implemented. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

Options:

A.

The asset is more expensive than the remediation

B.

The audit finding is incorrect

C.

The asset being protected is less valuable than the remediation costs

D.

The remediation costs are irrelevant; it must be implemented regardless of cost.

Question 30

What is the main purpose of the Incident Response Team?

Options:

A.

Ensure efficient recovery and reinstate repaired systems

B.

Create effective policies detailing program activities

C.

Communicate details of information security incidents

D.

Provide current employee awareness programs

Question 31

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question 32

When creating a vulnerability scan schedule, who is the MOST critical person to communicate with in order to ensure impact of the scan is minimized?

Options:

A.

The asset owner

B.

The asset manager

C.

The data custodian

D.

The project manager

Question 33

What standard provides a comprehensive framework for information security risk management within organizations?

Options:

A.

Informal ion Technology Library (ITIL )

B.

Information Security Management System (ISMS!

C.

NIST 800-218

D.

International Standards Organization (ISO) 27005

Question 34

Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Time, quality, and scope

B.

Cost, quality, and time

C.

Scope, time, and cost

D.

Quality, scope, and cost

Question 35

XYZ is a publicly-traded software development company.

Who is ultimately accountable to the shareholders in the event of a cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

B.

Chief Software Architect (CIO)

C.

CISO

D.

Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

Question 36

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 37

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding capital expenses?

Options:

A.

They are easily reduced through the elimination of usage, such as reducing power for lighting of work areasduring off-hours

B.

Capital expenses can never be replaced by operational expenses

C.

Capital expenses are typically long-term investments with value being realized through their use

D.

The organization is typically able to regain the initial cost by selling this type of asset

Question 38

Which of the following are MOST often included in the security strategy?

Options:

A.

How the program will align to business goals and the organization’s general tolerance for risk

B.

Market analysis and sales history

C.

The company mission statement and audit reports from the past three years

D.

Security program support statements from each member of the Board of Directors

Question 39

Which of the following are not stakeholders of IT security projects?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Third party vendors

C.

CISO

D.

Help Desk

Question 40

A security professional has been promoted to be the CISO of an organization. The first task is to create a security policy for this organization. The CISO creates and publishes the security policy. This policy however, is ignored and not enforced consistently. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the policy shortcomings?

Options:

A.

Lack of a formal security awareness program

B.

Lack of a formal security policy governance process

C.

Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities

D.

Lack of a formal risk management policy

Question 41

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 42

Which of the following most commonly falls within the scope of an information security governance steering committee?

Options:

A.

Approving access to critical financial systems

B.

Developing content for security awareness programs

C.

Interviewing candidates for information security specialist positions

D.

Vetting information security policies

Question 43

The FIRST step in establishing a security governance program is to?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Obtain senior level sponsorship.

C.

Conduct a workshop for all end users.

D.

Prepare a security budget.

Question 44

A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization’s large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Scan a representative sample of systems

B.

Perform the scans only during off-business hours

C.

Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings

D.

Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed

Question 45

The company decides to release the application without remediating the high-risk vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the company to release the application?

Options:

A.

The company lacks a risk management process

B.

The company does not believe the security vulnerabilities to be real

C.

The company has a high risk tolerance

D.

The company lacks the tools to perform a vulnerability assessment

Question 46

A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?

Options:

A.

Audit validation

B.

Physical control testing

C.

Compliance management

D.

Security awareness training

Question 47

You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer

B.

Chief Executive Officer

C.

Chief Information Officer

D.

Chief Legal Counsel

Question 48

If a CISO wants to understand the liabilities of the company, she will refer to the:

Options:

A.

Statement of Proxy

B.

Statement of Retained Earnings

C.

once Sheet

D.

Profit and Loss Statement

Question 49

Which of the following represents the HIGHEST negative impact resulting from an ineffective security governance program?

Options:

A.

Reduction of budget

B.

Decreased security awareness

C.

Improper use of information resources

D.

Fines for regulatory non-compliance

Question 50

Which of the following would negatively impact a log analysis of a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

Centralized log management

B.

Encrypted log files in transit

C.

Each node set to local time

D.

Log aggregation agent each node

Question 51

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002 standard?

Options:

A.

To give information security management recommendations to those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization.

B.

To provide a common basis for developing organizational security standards

C.

To provide effective security management practice and to provide confidence in inter-organizational dealings

D.

To established guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management within an organization

Question 52

Which of the following is the BEST reason for CISO collaboration with legal, IT, and core business functions?

Options:

A.

To include as many people as possible with security decisions

B.

To make sure all regulatory requirements are distributed to all stakeholders in the business

C.

To allow for faster acquisition of security services and products

D.

To provide integration of the security program to the business

Question 53

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question 54

Which of the following information would MOST likely be reported at the board-level within an organization?

Options:

A.

System scanning trends and results as they pertain to insider and external threat sources

B.

The capabilities of a security program in terms of staffing support

C.

Significant risks and security incidents that have been discovered since the last assembly of themembership

D.

The numbers and types of cyberattacks experienced by the organization since the last assembly of themembership

Question 55

Which of the following is a PRIMARY task of a risk management function within the security program?

Options:

A.

Creating and communicating Key Performance Indicators

B.

Deciding the organization's risk appetite

C.

Coordinating schedules of risk assessments

D.

Creating and approving risk mitigation

Question 56

What term BEST describes assuring the actions of employees, applications, and systems follow the organization's rules and regulations?

Options:

A.

Asset functionalization

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Audit checklist

Question 57

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 58

Which of the following is a benefit of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Questioning the trust in vendor relationships.

B.

Increasing the risk of decisions based on incomplete management information.

C.

Direct involvement of senior management in developing control processes

D.

Reduction of the potential for civil and legal liability

Question 59

The rate of change in technology increases the importance of:

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the IT functions.

B.

Understanding user requirements.

C.

Hiring personnel with leading edge skills.

D.

Implementing and enforcing good processes.

Question 60

Who is PRIMARILY responsible for declaring a disaster and initiating processes to facilitate the recovery of critical assets in an organization?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Manager

B.

Board of Directors

C.

Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

D.

CISO

Question 61

The BEST organization to provide a comprehensive, independent and certifiable perspective on established security controls in an environment is

Options:

A.

Penetration testers

B.

External Audit

C.

Internal Audit

D.

Forensic experts

Question 62

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 63

Your IT auditor is reviewing significant events from the previous year and has identified some procedural oversights. Which of the following would be the MOST concerning?

Options:

A.

Lack of notification to the public of disclosure of confidential information.

B.

Lack of periodic examination of access rights

C.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

D.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial of service attack on the network.

Question 64

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 65

Which of the following is a critical operational component of an Incident Response Program (IRP)?

Options:

A.

Weekly program budget reviews to ensure the percentage of program funding remains constant.

B.

Annual review of program charters, policies, procedures and organizational agreements.

C.

Daily monitoring of vulnerability advisories relating to your organization’s deployed technologies.

D.

Monthly program tests to ensure resource allocation is sufficient for supporting the needs of the organization

Question 66

What is a key policy that should be part of the information security plan?

Options:

A.

Account management policy

B.

Training policy

C.

Acceptable Use policy

D.

Remote Access policy

Question 67

Which organizational structure blends elements of functional and project organizational models to create a hybrid reporting structure?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Sole owner

C.

Limited liability

D.

Matrix

Question 68

In which of the following examples would an organization be more willing to accept a risk instead of mitigating it?

Options:

A.

The risk tolerance within the organization is high

B.

The organization’s risk tolerance is low

C.

The organization primarily uses qualitative risk measurement

D.

The organization’s risk management program is mature

Question 69

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 70

During the last decade, what trend has caused the MOST serious issues in relation to physical security?

Options:

A.

Data is more portable due to the increased use of smartphones and tablets

B.

The move from centralized computing to decentralized computing

C.

Camera systems have become more economical and expanded in their use

D.

The internet of Things allows easy compromise of cloud-based systems

Question 71

Which business stakeholder is accountable for the integrity of a new information system?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Compliance Officer

C.

Project manager

D.

Board of directors

Question 72

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 73

What is the MAIN reason for conflicts between Information Technology and Information Security programs?

Options:

A.

Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.

B.

Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.

C.

Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.

D.

The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.

Question 74

What is a key goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Creation of controls and processes to security the organization's data and information resources

B.

The documentation and qualification of risk be the organization to facilitate better decision making by management

C.

The confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization s data and information resources

D.

to reduce adverse impacts on the organization to an acceptable level of risk

Question 75

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

Options:

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question 76

The success of the Chief Information Security Officer is MOST dependent upon:

Options:

A.

favorable audit findings

B.

following the recommendations of consultants and contractors

C.

development of relationships with organization executives

D.

raising awareness of security issues with end users

Question 77

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 78

Which of the following is the MOST important for a CISO to understand when identifying threats?

Options:

A.

How vulnerabilities can potentially be exploited in systems that impact the organization

B.

How the security operations team will behave to reported incidents

C.

How the firewall and other security devices are configured to prevent attacks

D.

How the incident management team prepares to handle an attack

Question 79

What does an anonymous network consist of as the PRIMARY supporting components?

Options:

A.

Volunteer computers

B.

Covert databases

C.

Discrete networks

D.

War driving maps

Question 80

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

Question 81

If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of business,

they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person hired, and they

will be in the organization. How would you prevent such type of attacks?

Options:

A.

Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them

B.

Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you

C.

Investigate their social networking profiles

D.

It is impossible to block these attacks

Question 82

From an information security perspective, information that no longer supports the main purpose of the business should be:

Options:

A.

assessed by a business impact analysis.

B.

protected under the information classification policy.

C.

analyzed under the data ownership policy.

D.

analyzed under the retention policy

Question 83

A security project is over a year behind schedule and over budget. Which of the following is MOST important to review and verify?

Options:

A.

Constraints

B.

Scope

C.

Technologies

D.

Milestones

Question 84

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 85

The effectiveness of an audit is measured by?

Options:

A.

The number of actionable items in the recommendations

B.

How it exposes the risk tolerance of the company

C.

How the recommendations directly support the goals of the company

D.

The number of security controls the company has in use

Question 86

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:

Options:

A.

Easiest regulation or standard to implement

B.

Stricter regulation or standard

C.

Most complex standard to implement

D.

Recommendations of your Legal Staff

Question 87

Which of the following is an IT governance framework that allows managers to bridge the gap between control requirements, technical issues, and business risks?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27003

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

D.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Question 88

Alerting, monitoring, and managing security-related events is typically performed by what security function?

Options:

A.

Threat and vulnerability management

B.

Security compliance

C.

Security operations

D.

Risk management

Question 89

What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?

Options:

A.

Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned

B.

Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan

C.

Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor

D.

Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan

Question 90

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question 91

The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:

Options:

A.

Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.

B.

Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements

C.

Establishing incident response programs.

D.

Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.

Question 92

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

Question 93

Which of the following is the BEST security control for reducing the threat of phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

Create a data loss prevention capability

B.

Security awareness and training

C.

Implement antivirus within the email system

D.

Increase helpdesk staff

Question 94

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost

B.

Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs

C.

Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair

D.

Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability

Question 95

Providing oversight of an information security program for the organization is the primary responsibility of which group?

Options:

A.

Office of the Auditor

B.

Senior Executives

C.

Office of the General Counsel

D.

All employees and users

Question 96

What is the PRIMARY difference between Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)?

Options:

A.

IPS examines network traffic flows to detect and actively stop exploits and attacks

B.

Only IDS is susceptible to false positives

C.

IDS is typically deployed behind the firewall and IPS is deployed in front of the firewall

D.

IPS identifies potentially malicious traffic based on signature or behavior and IDS does not

Question 97

What will a CISO analyze if she wants to understand the MOST current financial status of the organization?

Options:

A.

Annual Profit and Loss Statement

B.

Statement of Retained Earnings

C.

Statement of Proxy

D.

Balance Sheet

Question 98

What is the estimate of all direct and indirect costs associated with an asset or acquisition over its entire life cycle?

Options:

A.

Total COST of Product

B.

Total Cost of Ownership

C.

Return on Investment

D.

Total Cost of Production

Question 99

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

Your defenses did not hold up to the test as originally thought. As you investigate how the data was compromised through log analysis you discover that a hardworking, but misguided business intelligence analyst posted the data to an obfuscated URL on a popular cloud storage service so they could work on it from home during their off-time. Which technology or solution could you deploy to prevent employees from removing corporate data from your network? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Security Guards posted outside the Data Center

B.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

C.

Rigorous syslog reviews

D.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

Question 100

An organization's Information Security Policy is of MOST importance because

Options:

A.

it communicates management’s commitment to protecting information resources

B.

it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendors

C.

it defines a process to meet compliance requirements

D.

it establishes a framework to protect confidential information

Question 101

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Better understand the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the environment

C.

Better understand strengths and weaknesses of the program

D.

Meet legal requirements

Question 102

As the CISO you need to write the IT security strategic plan. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before you start writing the plan?

Options:

A.

The existing IT environment.

B.

The company business plan.

C.

The present IT budget.

D.

Other corporate technology trends.

Question 103

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question 104

Most of your security projects are behind schedule and over budget, but they align with the security program goals and are correctly scoped. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Obtain new project budgets

B.

Analyze resource availability

C.

Remove constraints

D.

Rewrite deliverable schedules

Question 105

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from Web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Library control

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Removal of stored procedures

Question 106

Which of the following best describes an access control process that confirms the identity of the entity seeking

access to a logical or physical area?

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Accountability

Question 107

A large number of accounts in a hardened system were suddenly compromised to an external party. Which of

the following is the MOST probable threat actor involved in this incident?

Options:

A.

Poorly configured firewalls

B.

Malware

C.

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

D.

An insider

Question 108

One of the MAIN goals of a Business Continuity Plan is to

Options:

A.

Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster

B.

Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster

C.

Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster

D.

Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.

Question 109

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

The organization has already been subject to a significant amount of credit card fraud. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this fraud?

Options:

A.

Lack of compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standards

B.

Ineffective security awareness program

C.

Security practices not in alignment with ISO 27000 frameworks

D.

Lack of technical controls when dealing with credit card data

Question 110

What is the difference between encryption and tokenization?

Options:

A.

Tokenization combined with hashing is always better than encryption

B.

Encryption can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

C.

The token contains the all original information

D.

Tokenization can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

Question 111

Providing oversight of a comprehensive information security program for the entire organization is the primary responsibility of which group under the InfoSec governance framework?

Options:

A.

Senior Executives

B.

Office of the Auditor

C.

Office of the General Counsel

D.

All employees and users

Question 112

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

Options:

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question 113

Which of the following is the MOST critical to review before you create a security strategy?

Options:

A.

Security industry technology trends

B.

The prior year security budget

C.

Existing technology diagrams

D.

The company business plan

Question 114

What is the MOST likely detrimental consequence arising from an ineffective security governance program within a highly regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Delayed response to security incidents

B.

Increased regulatory personnel allocation for security oversight

C.

Penalties incurred due to regulatory violations

D.

Increased employee morale and satisfaction

Question 115

You have implemented a new security control. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question 116

Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

Options:

A.

Facial recognition scan

B.

Iris scan

C.

Signature kinetics scan

D.

Retinal scan

Question 117

A CISO wants to change the defense strategy to ward off attackers. To accomplish this the CISO is looking to a strategy where attackers are lured into a zone of a safe network where attackers can be monitored, controlled, quarantined, or eradicated.

Options:

A.

Moderate investment

B.

Passive monitoring

C.

Integrated security controls

D.

Dynamic deception

Question 118

Human resource planning for security professionals in your organization is a:

Options:

A.

Simple and easy task because the threats are getting easier to find and correct.

B.

Training requirement that is met through once every year user training.

C.

Training requirement that is on-going and always changing.

D.

Not needed because automation and anti-virus software has eliminated the threats.

Question 119

What is the primary reason for performing a return on investment analysis?

Options:

A.

To decide between multiple vendors

B.

To decide is the solution costs less than the risk it is mitigating

C.

To determine the current present value of a project

D.

To determine the annual rate of loss

Question 120

The establishment of a formal risk management framework and system authorization program is essential. The LAST step of the system authorization process is:

Options:

A.

Contacting the Internet Service Provider for an IP scope

B.

Getting authority to operate the system from executive management

C.

Changing the default passwords

D.

Conducting a final scan of the live system and mitigating all high and medium level vulnerabilities

Question 121

Which security technologies are critical for a zero trust model?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication, Identity and Access Management (IAM), and endpoint security

B.

Coding libraries, secure network gateways, and endpoint antivirus

C.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP), Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), and network integrations

D.

Firewalls, intrusion prevention, and Web Application Firewalls (WAF)

Question 122

An organization has a number of Local Area Networks (LANs) linked to form a single Wide Area Network

(WAN). Which of the following would BEST ensure network continuity?

Options:

A.

Third-party emergency repair contract

B.

Pre-built servers and routers

C.

Permanent alternative routing

D.

Full off-site backup of every server

Question 123

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

Question 124

Which of the following items is discretionary?

Options:

A.

Procedures

B.

Policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 125

Which of the following is a metric used for data backup and restoration metrics?

Options:

A.

Mean Time to Operations (MTO)

B.

Recovery Base Objective (RBO)

C.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

D.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

Question 126

Which of the following provides the BEST ability to view potential financial results in relation to goal achievement?

Options:

A.

Savings-Delivery Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Review of Investment

Question 127

You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to quickly identify high-level risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis

B.

Quantitative analysis

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Estimate activity duration

Question 128

Dataflow diagrams are used by IT auditors to:

Options:

A.

Order data hierarchically.

B.

Highlight high-level data definitions.

C.

Graphically summarize data paths and storage processes.

D.

Portray step-by-step details of data generation.

Question 129

Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration when an organization retains sensitive customer data and uses this data to better target the organization’s products and services?

Options:

A.

Strong authentication technologies

B.

Financial reporting regulations

C.

Credit card compliance and regulations

D.

Local privacy laws

Question 130

Which type of physical security control scan a person’s external features through a digital video camera before

granting access to a restricted area?

Options:

A.

Iris scan

B.

Retinal scan

C.

Facial recognition scan

D.

Signature kinetics scan

Question 131

The governing body that defines best practices for the collection of digital evidence is the:

Options:

A.

European Union (EU)

B.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NI5T)

C.

Scientific Working Croup on Digital evidence (5WGDE)

D.

department of Defense (DoD)

Question 132

What two methods are used to assess risk impact?

Options:

A.

Cost and annual rate of expectance

B.

Subjective and Objective

C.

Qualitative and percent of loss realized

D.

Quantitative and qualitative

Question 133

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to follow a formal risk management process in an organization that hosts and uses privately identifiable information (PII) as part of their business models and processes?

Options:

A.

Need to comply with breach disclosure laws

B.

Need to transfer the risk associated with hosting PII data

C.

Need to better understand the risk associated with using PII data

D.

Fiduciary responsibility to safeguard credit card information

Question 134

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is negative

B.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is less than 10 months

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is longer than 10 months

D.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

Question 135

What is the BEST practice for having vendors verify controls within their services or products to protect customer data and systems?

Options:

A.

Validate controls once every five years

B.

Perform validations after contracts are signed

C.

Perform annual verifications

D.

Verify once during contract negotiations

Question 136

Ciphertext is encrypted with a result being a compressed representation of the original data. What is this result called?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Multi-factor

C.

Ciphertext

D.

One-time hash

Question 137

You are the CISO of a commercial social media organization. The leadership wants to rapidly create new methods of sharing customer data through creative linkages with mobile devices. You have voiced concern about privacy regulations but the velocity of the business is given priority. Which of the following BEST describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Risk averse

B.

Risk tolerant

C.

Risk conditional

D.

Risk minimal

Question 138

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented

B.

Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate

C.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

D.

Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform

Question 139

What framework of rules and practices is used by a Board of Directors to provide accountability, fairness, and transparency in the organization’s interactions with its shareholders?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Stock performance

C.

Corporate governance

D.

Audit oversight

Question 140

During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team?

Options:

A.

Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst

B.

Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator

C.

CIO, CFO, CSO

D.

Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager

Question 141

An organization has decided to develop an in-house BCM capability. The organization has determined it is best to follow a BCM standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The BEST ISO standard to follow that outlines the complete lifecycle of BCM is?

Options:

A.

ISO 22318 Supply Chain Continuity

B.

ISO 27031 BCM Readiness

C.

ISO 22301 BCM Requirements

D.

ISO 22317 BIA

Question 142

Your company has limited resources to spend on security initiatives. The Chief Financial Officer asks you to prioritize the protection of information resources based on their value to the company. It is essential that you be able to communicate in language that your fellow executives will understand. You should:

Options:

A.

Create timelines for mitigation

B.

Develop a cost-benefit analysis

C.

Calculate annual loss expectancy

D.

Create a detailed technical executive summary

Question 143

What standard provides a framework for information security risk management?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27005

B.

Control Objectives for Information Technology (COBIT)

C.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27003

D.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Question 144

In order for a CISO to have true situational awareness there is a need to deploy technology that can give a real-time view of security events across the enterprise. Which tool selection represents the BEST choice to achieve situational awareness?

Options:

A.

Vmware, router, switch, firewall, syslog, vulnerability management system (VMS)

B.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS), firewall, switch, syslog

C.

Security Incident Event Management (SIEM), IDS, router, syslog

D.

SIEM, IDS, firewall, VMS

Question 145

Which control is used to discourage the exploitation of a vulnerability or system?

Options:

A.

Preventative

B.

Corrective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Detective

Question 146

In what phase of an incident management process will malware antivirus signatures be distributed to infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Distribution

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Collection

Question 147

Developing effective security controls is a balance between:

Options:

A.

Risk Management and Operations

B.

Corporate Culture and Job Expectations

C.

Operations and Regulations

D.

Technology and Vendor Management

Question 148

Which of the following is the MOST important to share with an Information Security Steering Committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels

B.

Review audit and compliance reports

C.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor

Question 149

When would it be more desirable to develop a set of decentralized security policies and procedures within an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

When there is a need to develop a more unified incident response capability.

B.

When the enterprise is made up of many business units with diverse business activities, risks profiles and regulatory requirements.

C.

When there is a variety of technologies deployed in the infrastructure.

D.

When it results in an overall lower cost of operating the security program.

Question 150

What are the common data hiding techniques used by criminals?

Options:

A.

Unallocated space and masking

B.

Website defacement and log manipulation

C.

Disabled Logging and admin elevation

D.

Encryption, Steganography, and Changing Metadata/Timestamps

Question 151

A cloud computing environment that is bound together by technology that allows data and applications to be shared between public and private clouds is BEST referred to as a?

Options:

A.

Public cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Community cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

Question 152

The Information Security Governance program MUST:

Options:

A.

integrate with other organizational governance processes

B.

support user choice for Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

C.

integrate with other organizational governance processes

D.

show a return on investment for the organization

Question 153

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

In what phase of the response will the team extract information from the affected systems without altering original data?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

Question 154

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to organizational implementation and management requirements. Which of the following principles does this BEST demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Proper budget management

B.

Leveraging existing implementations

C.

Alignment with the business

D.

Effective use of existing technologies

Question 155

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

Question 156

What organizational structure combines the functional and project structures to create a hybrid of the two?

Options:

A.

Traditional

B.

Composite

C.

Project

D.

Matrix

Question 157

A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?

Options:

A.

Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.

B.

Amend the standard to permit the deployment.

C.

If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.

D.

Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.

Question 158

A recent audit has identified a few control exceptions and is recommending the implementation of technology and processes to address the finding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the organization to reject the implementation of the recommended technology and processes?

Options:

A.

The auditors have not followed proper auditing processes

B.

The CIO of the organization disagrees with the finding

C.

The risk tolerance of the organization permits this risk

D.

The organization has purchased cyber insurance

Question 159

As the CISO, you are the project sponsor for a highly visible log management project. The objective of the project is to centralize all the enterprise logs into a security information and event management (SIEM) system. You requested the results of the performance quality audits activity.

The performance quality audit activity is done in what project management process group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 160

What is the MOST effective approach to gaining business unit approval of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Create separate controls and technologies for business units

B.

Create control mandates and schedules of audits for business compliance validation

C.

Collaborate with business units to define conditions under which controls must be applied

D.

Allow business units to decide which controls apply to their systems

Question 161

Which of the following would be the MOST concerning security audit finding?

Options:

A.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

B.

Notification was not provided for a breach of personal information

C.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial-of-service attack

D.

Identified lack of weekly access rights reviews

Question 162

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 163

When deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) the BEST way to get maximum protection from the system is to deploy it

Options:

A.

In promiscuous mode and only detect malicious traffic.

B.

In-line and turn on blocking mode to stop malicious traffic.

C.

In promiscuous mode and block malicious traffic.

D.

In-line and turn on alert mode to stop malicious traffic.

Question 164

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

They should be aware of significant changes to critical applications

B.

They should gather reports from the development team regarding suspected vulnerabilities

C.

They should monitor development workload for suspected release of new code

D.

They should be informed of all changes within the organization's infrastructure

Question 165

Which of the following is a common technology for visual monitoring?

Options:

A.

Closed circuit television

B.

Open circuit television

C.

Blocked video

D.

Local video

Question 166

What is a Statement of Objectives (SOA)?

Options:

A.

A section of a contract that defines tasks to be performed under said contract

B.

An outline of what the military will do during war

C.

A document that outlines specific desired outcomes as part of a request for proposal

D.

Business guidance provided by the CEO

Question 167

When considering using a vendor to help support your security devices remotely, what is the BEST choice for allowing access?

Options:

A.

Vendors uses their own laptop and logins with same admin credentials your security team uses

B.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with same admin credentials your security team uses

C.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

D.

Vendor uses their own laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

Question 168

Quantitative Risk Assessments have the following advantages over qualitative risk assessments:

Options:

A.

They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers

B.

They are subjective and can be completed more quickly

C.

They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates

D.

They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers

Question 169

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

Which of the following is the reason the CISO has not been able to advance the security agenda in this organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of identification of technology stake holders

B.

Lack of business continuity process

C.

Lack of influence with leaders outside IT

D.

Lack of a security awareness program

Question 170

Which of the following activities results in change requests?

Options:

A.

Preventive actions

B.

Inspection

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective actions

Question 171

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question 172

Risk transference is BEST represented by which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Communicating the risk to all business units

B.

Outsourcing data storage operations to a third party

C.

Procuring cyber insurance

D.

Changing current processes for data retention

Question 173

Credit card information, medical data, and government records are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Confidential/Protected Information

B.

Bodily Information

C.

Territorial Information

D.

Communications Information

Question 174

The Board of Directors of a publicly-traded company is concerned about the security implications of a strategic project that will migrate 50% of the organization’s information technology assets to the cloud. They have requested a briefing on the project plan and a progress report of the security stream of the project. As the CISO, you have been tasked with preparing the report for the Chief Executive Officer to present.

Using the Earned Value Management (EVM), what does a Cost Variance (CV) of -1,200 mean?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget

B.

The project budget has reserves

C.

The project cost is in alignment with the budget

D.

The project is under budget

Question 175

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 176

Which of the following uses encapsulation and encryption?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

D.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Question 177

As the Chief Information Security Officer, you are performing an assessment of security posture to understand

what your Defense-in-Depth capabilities are. Which network security technology examines network traffic flows

to detect and actively stop vulnerability exploits and attacks?

Options:

A.

Gigamon

B.

Intrusion Prevention System

C.

Port Security

D.

Anti-virus

Question 178

An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?

Options:

A.

Ineffective configuration management controls

B.

Lack of change management controls

C.

Lack of version/source controls

D.

High turnover in the application development department

Question 179

Which of the following would provide a view into the current liabilities of a company?

Options:

A.

Statement of retained earnings

B.

Statement of proxy

C.

Profit and Loss statement

D.

Balance sheet

Question 180

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

Question 181

A CISO has recently joined an organization with a poorly implemented security program. The desire is to base the security program on a risk management approach. Which of the following is a foundational requirement in order to initiate this type of program?

Options:

A.

A security organization that is adequately staffed to apply required mitigation strategies and regulatory compliance solutions

B.

A clear set of security policies and procedures that are more concept-based than controls-based

C.

A complete inventory of Information Technology assets including infrastructure, networks, applications and data

D.

A clearly identified executive sponsor who will champion the effort to ensure organizational buy-in

Question 182

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 183

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

type of computer the data s processed on

B.

Type of data contained in the process and system

C.

Type of connection and protocol used to transfer the data

D.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

Question 184

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 185

The effectiveness of social engineering penetration testing using phishing can be used as a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for the effectiveness of an organization’s

Options:

A.

Risk Management Program.

B.

Anti-Spam controls.

C.

Security Awareness Program.

D.

Identity and Access Management Program.

Question 186

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

Question 187

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

When formulating the remediation plan, what is a required input?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Patching history

D.

Latest virus definitions file

Question 188

Creating good security metrics is essential for a CISO. What would be the BEST sources for creating security metrics for baseline defenses coverage?

Options:

A.

Servers, routers, switches, modem

B.

Firewall, exchange, web server, intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Firewall, anti-virus console, IDS, syslog

D.

IDS, syslog, router, switches

Question 189

An organization has a stated requirement to block certain traffic on networks. The implementation of controls will disrupt a manufacturing process and cause unacceptable delays, resulting in sever revenue disruptions. Which of the following is MOST likely to be responsible for accepting the risk until mitigating controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

The CISO

B.

Audit and Compliance

C.

The CFO

D.

The business owner

Question 190

Which of the following standards would be used for creating a Business Continuity Plan?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 24113

B.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001

C.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 22301

D.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27005

Question 191

Which of the following statements below regarding Key Performance indicators (KPIs) are true?

Options:

A.

Development of KPI’s are most useful when done independently

B.

They are a strictly quantitative measure of success

C.

They should be standard throughout the organization versus domain-specific so they are more easily correlated

D.

They are a strictly qualitative measure of success

Demo: 191 questions
Total 494 questions