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ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 138 questions
Total 460 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to organizational implementation and management requirements. Which of the following principles does this BEST demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Proper budget management

B.

Leveraging existing implementations

C.

Alignment with the business

D.

Effective use of existing technologies

Question 2

A Security Operations (SecOps) Manager is considering implementing threat hunting to be able to make better decisions on protecting information and assets.

What is the MAIN goal of threat hunting to the SecOps Manager?

Options:

A.

Improve discovery of valid detected events

B.

Enhance tuning of automated tools to detect and prevent attacks

C.

Replace existing threat detection strategies

D.

Validate patterns of behavior related to an attack

Question 3

You have been hired as the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) for a US federal government agency. Your role is to ensure the security posture of the system is maintained. One of your tasks is to develop and maintain the system security plan (SSP) and supporting documentation.

Which of the following is NOT documented in the SSP?

Options:

A.

The controls in place to secure the system

B.

Name of the connected system

C.

The results of a third-party audits and recommendations

D.

Type of information used in the system

Question 4

An auditor is reviewing the security classifications for a group of assets and finds that many of the assets are not correctly classified.

What should the auditor’s NEXT step be?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify the board of directors of the organization as to the finding

B.

Correct the classifications immediately based on the auditor’s knowledge of the proper classification

C.

Document the missing classifications

D.

Identify the owner of the asset and induce the owner to apply a proper classification

Question 5

You have been promoted to the CISO of a retail store. Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

Question 6

What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the sum of all capital expenditures

B.

It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

C.

It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

D.

It has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

Question 7

An organization has decided to develop an in-house BCM capability. The organization has determined it is best to follow a BCM standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The BEST ISO standard to follow that outlines the complete lifecycle of BCM is?

Options:

A.

ISO 22318 Supply Chain Continuity

B.

ISO 27031 BCM Readiness

C.

ISO 22301 BCM Requirements

D.

ISO 22317 BIA

Question 8

What is the primary difference between regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Standards will include regulations

B.

Standards that aren’t followed are punishable by fines

C.

Regulations are made enforceable by the power provided by laws

D.

Regulations must be reviewed and approved by the business

Question 9

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

Question 10

Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Real-time off-site replication

B.

Daily incremental backup

C.

Daily full backup

D.

Daily differential backup

Question 11

XYZ is a publicly-traded software development company.

Who is ultimately accountable to the shareholders in the event of a cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

B.

Chief Software Architect (CIO)

C.

CISO

D.

Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

Question 12

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 13

Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?

Options:

A.

Anti-phishing tools

B.

Effective Security awareness program

C.

Anti-malware tools

D.

Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program

Question 14

An organization recently acquired a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution, and two months after the implementation, it was found that sensitive data was posted to numerous Dark Web sites. The DLP application was checked, and there are no apparent malfunctions and no errors.

What is the MOST likely reason why the sensitive data was posted?

Options:

A.

The DLP Solution was not integrated with mobile device anti-malware

B.

Data classification was not properly performed on the assets

C.

The sensitive data was not encrypted while at rest

D.

A risk assessment was not performed after purchasing the DLP solution

Question 15

Which of the following is the MOST important to share with an Information Security Steering Committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels

B.

Review audit and compliance reports

C.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor

Question 16

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

Question 17

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

Question 18

A cloud computing environment that is bound together by technology that allows data and applications to be shared between public and private clouds is BEST referred to as a?

Options:

A.

Public cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Community cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

Question 19

When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important:

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Network monitoring

C.

Ability to provide security services tailored to the business’ needs

D.

24/7 tollfree number

Question 20

Which of the following provides the BEST approach to achieving positive outcomes while preserving savings?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Economic impact analysis

D.

Return on Investment

Question 21

What are the common data hiding techniques used by criminals?

Options:

A.

Unallocated space and masking

B.

Website defacement and log manipulation

C.

Disabled Logging and admin elevation

D.

Encryption, Steganography, and Changing Metadata/Timestamps

Question 22

Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT Management

B.

Internal Audit

C.

IT Security

D.

BOD Audit Committee

Question 23

Which of the following BEST mitigates ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Phishing exercises

B.

Use immutable data storage

C.

Blocking use of wireless networks

D.

Application of multiple endpoint anti-malware solutions

Question 24

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 25

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 26

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 27

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 28

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 29

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 30

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 31

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 32

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 33

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 34

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 35

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 36

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 37

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 38

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 39

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 40

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 41

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 42

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 43

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 44

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 45

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 46

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 47

A large number of accounts in a hardened system were suddenly compromised to an external party. Which of

the following is the MOST probable threat actor involved in this incident?

Options:

A.

Poorly configured firewalls

B.

Malware

C.

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

D.

An insider

Question 48

What is meant by password aging?

Options:

A.

An expiration date set for passwords

B.

A Single Sign-On requirement

C.

Time in seconds a user is allocated to change a password

D.

The amount of time it takes for a password to activate

Question 49

A digital signature addresses which of the following concerns?

Options:

A.

Message alteration

B.

Message copying

C.

Message theft

D.

Unauthorized reading

Question 50

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

Options:

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

Question 51

When analyzing and forecasting a capital expense budget what are not included?

Options:

A.

Network connectivity costs

B.

New datacenter to operate from

C.

Upgrade of mainframe

D.

Purchase of new mobile devices to improve operations

Question 52

A newly-hired CISO needs to understand the organization’s financial management standards for business units

and operations. Which of the following would be the best source of this information?

Options:

A.

The internal accounting department

B.

The Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

C.

The external financial audit service

D.

The managers of the accounts payables and accounts receivables teams

Question 53

Which of the following is used to lure attackers into false environments so they can be monitored, contained, or blocked from reaching critical systems?

Options:

A.

Segmentation controls.

B.

Shadow applications.

C.

Deception technology.

D.

Vulnerability management.

Question 54

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

Your defenses did not hold up to the test as originally thought. As you investigate how the data was compromised through log analysis you discover that a hardworking, but misguided business intelligence analyst posted the data to an obfuscated URL on a popular cloud storage service so they could work on it from home during their off-time. Which technology or solution could you deploy to prevent employees from removing corporate data from your network? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Security Guards posted outside the Data Center

B.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

C.

Rigorous syslog reviews

D.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

Question 55

You are just hired as the new CISO and are being briefed on all the Information Security projects that your section has on going. You discover that most projects are behind schedule and over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals and the scope of the project is correct. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Review time schedules

B.

Verify budget

C.

Verify resources

D.

Verify constraints

Question 56

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Question 57

What is the primary reason for performing vendor management?

Options:

A.

To understand the risk coverage that are being mitigated by the vendor

B.

To establish a vendor selection process

C.

To document the relationship between the company and the vendor

D.

To define the partnership for long-term success

Question 58

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:

Options:

A.

Easiest regulation or standard to implement

B.

Stricter regulation or standard

C.

Most complex standard to implement

D.

Recommendations of your Legal Staff

Question 59

Which of the following best describes revenue?

Options:

A.

Non-operating financial liabilities minus expenses

B.

The true profit-making potential of an organization

C.

The sum value of all assets and cash flow into the business

D.

The economic benefit derived by operating a business

Question 60

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Which of the following industry / sector neutral information security control frameworks should you recommend for implementation?

Options:

A.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53

B.

Payment Card Industry Digital Security Standard (PCI DSS)

C.

International Organization for Standardization – ISO 27001/2

D.

British Standard 7799 (BS7799)

Question 61

Which of the following is the MOST logical method of deploying security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain funding for all desired controls and then create project plans for implementation

B.

Apply the simpler controls as quickly as possible and use a risk-based approach for the more difficult and

costly controls

C.

Apply the least costly controls to demonstrate positive program activity

D.

Obtain business unit buy-in through close communication and coordination

Question 62

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

When adjusting the controls to mitigate the risks, how often should the CISO perform an audit to verify the controls?

Options:

A.

Annually

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Quarterly

D.

Never

Question 63

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for performing assessments of the security portfolio?

Options:

A.

To assure that the portfolio is aligned to the needs of the broader organization

B.

To create executive support of the portfolio

C.

To discover new technologies and processes for implementation within the portfolio

D.

To provide independent 3rd party reviews of security effectiveness

Question 64

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

When formulating the remediation plan, what is a required input?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Patching history

D.

Latest virus definitions file

Question 65

What is the difference between encryption and tokenization?

Options:

A.

Tokenization combined with hashing is always better than encryption

B.

Encryption can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

C.

The token contains the all original information

D.

Tokenization can be mathematically reversed to provide the original information

Question 66

The ability to demand the implementation and management of security controls on third parties providing services to an organization is

Options:

A.

Security Governance

B.

Compliance management

C.

Vendor management

D.

Disaster recovery

Question 67

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

Question 68

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

This global retail company is expected to accept credit card payments. Which of the following is of MOST concern when defining a security program for this organization?

Options:

A.

International encryption restrictions

B.

Compliance to Payment Card Industry (PCI) data security standards

C.

Compliance with local government privacy laws

D.

Adherence to local data breach notification laws

Question 69

Which of the following is considered the foundation for the Enterprise Information Security Architecture (EISA)?

Options:

A.

Security regulations

B.

Asset classification

C.

Information security policy

D.

Data classification

Question 70

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 71

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question 72

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

Question 73

The organization does not have the time to remediate the vulnerability; however it is critical to release the application. Which of the following needs to be further evaluated to help mitigate the risks?

Options:

A.

Provide developer security training

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Provide security testing tools

D.

Implement Compensating Controls

Question 74

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question 75

Information Security is often considered an excessive, after-the-fact cost when a project or initiative is completed. What can be done to ensure that security is addressed cost effectively?

Options:

A.

User awareness training for all employees

B.

Installation of new firewalls and intrusion detection systems

C.

Launch an internal awareness campaign

D.

Integrate security requirements into project inception

Question 76

Which of the following best summarizes the primary goal of a security program?

Options:

A.

Provide security reporting to all levels of an organization

B.

Create effective security awareness to employees

C.

Manage risk within the organization

D.

Assure regulatory compliance

Question 77

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 78

You are the CISO of a commercial social media organization. The leadership wants to rapidly create new methods of sharing customer data through creative linkages with mobile devices. You have voiced concern about privacy regulations but the velocity of the business is given priority. Which of the following BEST describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Risk averse

B.

Risk tolerant

C.

Risk conditional

D.

Risk minimal

Question 79

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

Question 80

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

Options:

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

Question 81

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 82

As the CISO for your company you are accountable for the protection of information resources commensurate with:

Options:

A.

Customer demand

B.

Cost and time to replace

C.

Insurability tables

D.

Risk of exposure

Question 83

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 84

When should IT security project management be outsourced?

Options:

A.

When organizational resources are limited

B.

When the benefits of outsourcing outweigh the inherent risks of outsourcing

C.

On new, enterprise-wide security initiatives

D.

On projects not forecasted in the yearly budget

Question 85

Which of the following functions evaluates risk present in IT initiatives and/or systems when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

System Testing

D.

Vulnerability Assessment

Question 86

The company decides to release the application without remediating the high-risk vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the company to release the application?

Options:

A.

The company lacks a risk management process

B.

The company does not believe the security vulnerabilities to be real

C.

The company has a high risk tolerance

D.

The company lacks the tools to perform a vulnerability assessment

Question 87

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 88

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 89

A department within your company has proposed a third party vendor solution to address an urgent, critical business need. As the CISO you have been asked to accelerate screening of their security control claims. Which of the following vendor provided documents is BEST to make your decision:

Options:

A.

Vendor’s client list of reputable organizations currently using their solution

B.

Vendor provided attestation of the detailed security controls from a reputable accounting firm

C.

Vendor provided reference from an existing reputable client detailing their implementation

D.

Vendor provided internal risk assessment and security control documentation

Question 90

Your company has a “no right to privacy” notice on all logon screens for your information systems and users sign an Acceptable Use Policy informing them of this condition. A peer group member and friend comes to you and requests access to one of her employee’s email account. What should you do? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Grant her access, the employee has been adequately warned through the AUP.

B.

Assist her with the request, but only after her supervisor signs off on the action.

C.

Reset the employee’s password and give it to the supervisor.

D.

Deny the request citing national privacy laws.

Question 91

A CISO has recently joined an organization with a poorly implemented security program. The desire is to base the security program on a risk management approach. Which of the following is a foundational requirement in order to initiate this type of program?

Options:

A.

A security organization that is adequately staffed to apply required mitigation strategies and regulatory compliance solutions

B.

A clear set of security policies and procedures that are more concept-based than controls-based

C.

A complete inventory of Information Technology assets including infrastructure, networks, applications and data

D.

A clearly identified executive sponsor who will champion the effort to ensure organizational buy-in

Question 92

Which of the following are not stakeholders of IT security projects?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Third party vendors

C.

CISO

D.

Help Desk

Question 93

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to measure the effectiveness of security controls on a perimeter network?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability scan of the network

B.

External penetration testing by a qualified third party

C.

Internal Firewall ruleset reviews

D.

Implement network intrusion prevention systems

Question 94

The BEST organization to provide a comprehensive, independent and certifiable perspective on established security controls in an environment is

Options:

A.

Penetration testers

B.

External Audit

C.

Internal Audit

D.

Forensic experts

Question 95

The executive board has requested that the CISO of an organization define and Key Performance Indicators (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security awareness program provided to call center employees. Which of the following can be used as a KPI?

Options:

A.

Number of callers who report security issues.

B.

Number of callers who report a lack of customer service from the call center

C.

Number of successful social engineering attempts on the call center

D.

Number of callers who abandon the call before speaking with a representative

Question 96

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

Options:

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question 97

Which of the following illustrates an operational control process:

Options:

A.

Classifying an information system as part of a risk assessment

B.

Installing an appropriate fire suppression system in the data center

C.

Conducting an audit of the configuration management process

D.

Establishing procurement standards for cloud vendors

Question 98

With respect to the audit management process, management response serves what function?

Options:

A.

placing underperforming units on notice for failing to meet standards

B.

determining whether or not resources will be allocated to remediate a finding

C.

adding controls to ensure that proper oversight is achieved by management

D.

revealing the “root cause” of the process failure and mitigating for all internal and external units

Question 99

At which point should the identity access management team be notified of the termination of an employee?

Options:

A.

At the end of the day once the employee is off site

B.

During the monthly review cycle

C.

Immediately so the employee account(s) can be disabled

D.

Before an audit

Question 100

The effectiveness of an audit is measured by?

Options:

A.

The number of actionable items in the recommendations

B.

How it exposes the risk tolerance of the company

C.

How the recommendations directly support the goals of the company

D.

The number of security controls the company has in use

Question 101

When a CISO considers delaying or not remediating system vulnerabilities which of the following are MOST important to take into account?

Options:

A.

Threat Level, Risk of Compromise, and Consequences of Compromise

B.

Risk Avoidance, Threat Level, and Consequences of Compromise

C.

Risk Transfer, Reputational Impact, and Consequences of Compromise

D.

Reputational Impact, Financial Impact, and Risk of Compromise

Question 102

When working in the Payment Card Industry (PCI), how often should security logs be review to comply with the standards?

Options:

A.

Daily

B.

Hourly

C.

Weekly

D.

Monthly

Question 103

You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to quickly identify high-level risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis

B.

Quantitative analysis

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Estimate activity duration

Question 104

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001?

Options:

A.

Use within an organization to formulate security requirements and objectives

B.

Implementation of business-enabling information security

C.

Use within an organization to ensure compliance with laws and regulations

D.

To enable organizations that adopt it to obtain certifications

Question 105

The regular review of a firewall ruleset is considered a

Options:

A.

Procedural control

B.

Organization control

C.

Technical control

D.

Management control

Question 106

Which of the following set of processes is considered to be one of the cornerstone cycles of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 standard?

Options:

A.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

C.

Plan-Select-Implement-Evaluate

D.

SCORE (Security Consensus Operational Readiness Evaluation)

Question 107

How often should an environment be monitored for cyber threats, risks, and exposures?

Options:

A.

Weekly

B.

Monthly

C.

Quarterly

D.

Daily

Question 108

Which of the following is a fundamental component of an audit record?

Options:

A.

Date and time of the event

B.

Failure of the event

C.

Originating IP-Address

D.

Authentication type

Question 109

The remediation of a specific audit finding is deemed too expensive and will not be implemented. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

Options:

A.

The asset is more expensive than the remediation

B.

The audit finding is incorrect

C.

The asset being protected is less valuable than the remediation costs

D.

The remediation costs are irrelevant; it must be implemented regardless of cost.

Question 110

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

Question 111

You are the Chief Information Security Officer of a large, multinational bank and you suspect there is a flaw in a two factor authentication token management process. Which of the following represents your BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Validate that security awareness program content includes information about the potential vulnerability

B.

Conduct a thorough risk assessment against the current implementation to determine system functions

C.

Determine program ownership to implement compensating controls

D.

Send a report to executive peers and business unit owners detailing your suspicions

Question 112

Which of the following activities results in change requests?

Options:

A.

Preventive actions

B.

Inspection

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective actions

Question 113

As a new CISO at a large healthcare company you are told that everyone has to badge in to get in the building. Below your office window you notice a door that is normally propped open during the day for groups of people to take breaks outside. Upon looking closer you see there is no badge reader. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing, this falls outside your area of influence.

B.

Close and chain the door shut and send a company-wide memo banning the practice.

C.

Have a risk assessment performed.

D.

Post a guard at the door to maintain physical security

Question 114

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Better understand the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the environment

C.

Better understand strengths and weaknesses of the program

D.

Meet legal requirements

Question 115

The CIO of an organization has decided to assign the responsibility of internal IT audit to the IT team. This is consider a bad practice MAINLY because

Options:

A.

The IT team is not familiar in IT audit practices

B.

This represents a bad implementation of the Least Privilege principle

C.

This represents a conflict of interest

D.

The IT team is not certified to perform audits

Question 116

Which of the following provides an audit framework?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)

B.

Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

C.

International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30

Question 117

Which of the following is the MOST important for a CISO to understand when identifying threats?

Options:

A.

How vulnerabilities can potentially be exploited in systems that impact the organization

B.

How the security operations team will behave to reported incidents

C.

How the firewall and other security devices are configured to prevent attacks

D.

How the incident management team prepares to handle an attack

Question 118

When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization

B.

Alignment of security goals with business goals

C.

Compliance with local privacy regulations

D.

Support from Legal and HR teams

Question 119

When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:

Options:

A.

information security metrics.

B.

knowledge required to analyze each issue.

C.

baseline against which metrics are evaluated.

D.

linkage to business area objectives.

Question 120

Quantitative Risk Assessments have the following advantages over qualitative risk assessments:

Options:

A.

They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers

B.

They are subjective and can be completed more quickly

C.

They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates

D.

They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers

Question 121

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the implementation of an information security governance model?

Options:

A.

Organizational budget

B.

Distance between physical locations

C.

Number of employees

D.

Complexity of organizational structure

Question 122

Developing effective security controls is a balance between:

Options:

A.

Risk Management and Operations

B.

Corporate Culture and Job Expectations

C.

Operations and Regulations

D.

Technology and Vendor Management

Question 123

When deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) the BEST way to get maximum protection from the system is to deploy it

Options:

A.

In promiscuous mode and only detect malicious traffic.

B.

In-line and turn on blocking mode to stop malicious traffic.

C.

In promiscuous mode and block malicious traffic.

D.

In-line and turn on alert mode to stop malicious traffic.

Question 124

Which of the following functions MUST your Information Security Governance program include for formal organizational reporting?

Options:

A.

Audit and Legal

B.

Budget and Compliance

C.

Human Resources and Budget

D.

Legal and Human Resources

Question 125

Who is responsible for securing networks during a security incident?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

B.

Security Operations Center (SO

C.

Disaster Recovery (DR) manager

D.

Incident Response Team (IRT)

Question 126

An organization’s firewall technology needs replaced. A specific technology has been selected that is less costly than others and lacking in some important capabilities. The security officer has voiced concerns about sensitive data breaches but the decision is made to purchase. What does this selection indicate?

Options:

A.

A high threat environment

B.

A low risk tolerance environment

C.

I low vulnerability environment

D.

A high risk tolerance environment

Question 127

The PRIMARY objective of security awareness is to:

Options:

A.

Ensure that security policies are read.

B.

Encourage security-conscious employee behavior.

C.

Meet legal and regulatory requirements.

D.

Put employees on notice in case follow-up action for noncompliance is necessary

Question 128

In which of the following cases, would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk

B.

The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk

C.

The organization’s risk tolerance is high

D.

The organization’s risk tolerance is lo

Question 129

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question 130

The Information Security Management program MUST protect:

Options:

A.

all organizational assets

B.

critical business processes and /or revenue streams

C.

intellectual property released into the public domain

D.

against distributed denial of service attacks

Question 131

What is the main purpose of the Incident Response Team?

Options:

A.

Ensure efficient recovery and reinstate repaired systems

B.

Create effective policies detailing program activities

C.

Communicate details of information security incidents

D.

Provide current employee awareness programs

Question 132

One of the MAIN goals of a Business Continuity Plan is to

Options:

A.

Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster

B.

Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster

C.

Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster

D.

Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.

Question 133

What is the relationship between information protection and regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

That all information in an organization must be protected equally.

B.

The information required to be protected by regulatory mandate does not have to be identified in the organizations data classification policy.

C.

That the protection of some information such as National ID information is mandated by regulation and other information such as trade secrets are protected based on business need.

D.

There is no relationship between the two.

Question 134

The establishment of a formal risk management framework and system authorization program is essential. The LAST step of the system authorization process is:

Options:

A.

Contacting the Internet Service Provider for an IP scope

B.

Getting authority to operate the system from executive management

C.

Changing the default passwords

D.

Conducting a final scan of the live system and mitigating all high and medium level vulnerabilities

Question 135

A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?

Options:

A.

Audit validation

B.

Physical control testing

C.

Compliance management

D.

Security awareness training

Question 136

When dealing with a risk management process, asset classification is important because it will impact the overall:

Options:

A.

Threat identification

B.

Risk monitoring

C.

Risk treatment

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 137

Which of the following is of MOST importance when security leaders of an organization are required to align security to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

Poses a strong technical background

B.

Understand all regulations affecting the organization

C.

Understand the business goals of the organization

D.

Poses a strong auditing background

Question 138

What is the first thing that needs to be completed in order to create a security program for your organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Security program budget

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Compliance and regulatory analysis

Demo: 138 questions
Total 460 questions