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ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 138 questions
Total 460 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 2

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 3

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 4

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 5

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 6

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 7

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 8

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 9

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 10

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 11

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 12

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 13

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 14

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 15

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 16

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 17

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 18

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 19

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 20

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 21

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 22

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 23

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 24

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 25

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 26

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 27

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 28

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 29

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

Question 30

A bastion host should be placed:

Options:

A.

Inside the DMZ

B.

In-line with the data center firewall

C.

Beyond the outer perimeter firewall

D.

As the gatekeeper to the organization’s honeynet

Question 31

Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT Management

B.

Internal Audit

C.

IT Security

D.

BOD Audit Committee

Question 32

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question 33

ABC Limited has recently suffered a security breach with customers’ social security number available on the dark web for sale. The CISO, during the time of the incident, has been fired, and you have been hired as the replacement. The analysis of the breach found that the absence of an insider threat program, lack of least privilege policy, and weak access control was to blame. You would like to implement key performance indicators to mitigate the risk.

Which metric would meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Number of times third parties access critical information systems

B.

Number of systems with known vulnerabilities

C.

Number of users with elevated privileges

D.

Number of websites with weak or misconfigured certificates

Question 34

When obtaining new products and services, why is it essential to collaborate with lawyers, IT security professionals, privacy professionals, security engineers, suppliers, and others?

Options:

A.

This makes sure the files you exchange aren’t unnecessarily flagged by the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system

B.

Contracting rules typically require you to have conversations with two or more groups

C.

Discussing decisions with a very large group of people always provides a better outcome

D.

It helps to avoid regulatory or internal compliance issues

Question 35

The main purpose of the SOC is:

Options:

A.

An organization which provides Tier 1 support for technology issues and provides escalation when needed

B.

A distributed organization which provides intelligence to governments and private sectors on cyber-criminal activities

C.

The coordination of personnel, processes and technology to identify information security events and provide timely response and remediation

D.

A device which consolidates event logs and provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware

Question 36

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Social engineering

D.

All of these

Question 37

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

Question 38

XYZ is a publicly-traded software development company.

Who is ultimately accountable to the shareholders in the event of a cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

B.

Chief Software Architect (CIO)

C.

CISO

D.

Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

Question 39

As the Risk Manager of an organization, you are task with managing vendor risk assessments. During the assessment, you identified that the vendor is engaged with high profiled clients, and bad publicity can jeopardize your own brand.

Which is the BEST type of risk that defines this event?

Options:

A.

Compliance Risk

B.

Reputation Risk

C.

Operational Risk

D.

Strategic Risk

Question 40

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

Question 41

In defining a strategic security plan for an organization, what should a CISO first analyze?

Options:

A.

Reach out to a business similar to yours and ask for their plan

B.

Set goals that are difficult to attain to drive more productivity

C.

Review business acquisitions for the past 3 years

D.

Analyze the broader organizational strategic plan

Question 42

What is the THIRD state of the Tuckman Stages of Group Development?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Forming

Question 43

From the CISO’s perspective in looking at financial statements, the statement of retained earnings of an organization:

Options:

A.

Has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

B.

Represents, in part, the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

C.

Represents the sum of all capital expenditures

D.

Represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

Question 44

When managing a project, the MOST important activity in managing the expectations of stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

To force stakeholders to commit ample resources to support the project

B.

To facilitate proper communication regarding outcomes

C.

To assure stakeholders commit to the project start and end dates in writing

D.

To finalize detailed scope of the project at project initiation

Question 45

Which level of data destruction applies logical techniques to sanitize data in all user-addressable storage locations?

Options:

A.

Purge

B.

Clear

C.

Mangle

D.

Destroy

Question 46

What is a Statement of Objectives (SOA)?

Options:

A.

A section of a contract that defines tasks to be performed under said contract

B.

An outline of what the military will do during war

C.

A document that outlines specific desired outcomes as part of a request for proposal

D.

Business guidance provided by the CEO

Question 47

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

Question 48

What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Use immutable data storage

B.

Phishing exercises

C.

Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions

D.

Blocking use of wireless networks

Question 49

Which of the following is the MOST important to share with an Information Security Steering Committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels

B.

Review audit and compliance reports

C.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor

Question 50

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

User awareness and training

B.

Host based Intrusion Detection System (IPS)

C.

Acceptable use guide signed by all system users

D.

Antispam solution

Question 51

What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the sum of all capital expenditures

B.

It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

C.

It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

D.

It has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

Question 52

Which of the following provides the BEST approach to achieving positive outcomes while preserving savings?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Economic impact analysis

D.

Return on Investment

Question 53

Of the following types of SOCs (Security Operations Centers), which one would be MOST likely used if the CISO has decided to outsource the infrastructure and administration of it?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Dedicated

C.

Fusion

D.

Command

Question 54

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

Question 55

Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Time, quality, and scope

B.

Cost, quality, and time

C.

Scope, time, and cost

D.

Quality, scope, and cost

Question 56

When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important:

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Network monitoring

C.

Ability to provide security services tailored to the business’ needs

D.

24/7 tollfree number

Question 57

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

This global retail company is expected to accept credit card payments. Which of the following is of MOST concern when defining a security program for this organization?

Options:

A.

International encryption restrictions

B.

Compliance to Payment Card Industry (PCI) data security standards

C.

Compliance with local government privacy laws

D.

Adherence to local data breach notification laws

Question 58

What are the three hierarchically related aspects of strategic planning and in which order should they be done?

Options:

A.

1) Information technology strategic planning, 2) Enterprise strategic planning, 3) Cybersecurity or

information security strategic planning

B.

1) Cybersecurity or information security strategic planning, 2) Enterprise strategic planning, 3) Information

technology strategic planning

C.

1) Enterprise strategic planning, 2) Information technology strategic planning, 3) Cybersecurity or

information security strategic planning

D.

1) Enterprise strategic planning, 2) Cybersecurity or information security strategic planning, 3) Information

technology strategic planning

Question 59

Access Control lists (ACLs), Firewalls, and Intrusion Prevention Systems are examples of

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative controls

B.

Software segmentation controls

C.

Network based security detective controls

D.

User segmentation controls

Question 60

When project costs continually increase throughout implementation due to large or rapid changes in customer

or user requirements, this is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

Cost/benefit adjustments

B.

Scope creep

C.

Prototype issues

D.

Expectations management

Question 61

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

You have identified potential solutions for all of your risks that do not have security controls. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Get approval from the board of directors

B.

Screen potential vendor solutions

C.

Verify that the cost of mitigation is less than the risk

D.

Create a risk metrics for all unmitigated risks

Question 62

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how

hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles

does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Effective use of existing technologies

B.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

C.

Proper budget management

D.

Leveraging existing implementations

Question 63

Scenario: The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the section has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and way over budget.

Which of the following will be most helpful for getting an Information Security project that is behind schedule back on schedule?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

More training of staff members

D.

Involve internal audit

Question 64

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question 65

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

How can you reduce the administrative burden of distributing symmetric keys for your employer?

Options:

A.

Use asymmetric encryption for the automated distribution of the symmetric key

B.

Use a self-generated key on both ends to eliminate the need for distribution

C.

Use certificate authority to distribute private keys

D.

Symmetrically encrypt the key and then use asymmetric encryption to unencrypt it

Question 66

Which of the following defines the boundaries and scope of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment schedule

B.

The risk assessment framework

C.

The risk assessment charter

D.

The assessment context

Question 67

What is the primary reason for performing vendor management?

Options:

A.

To understand the risk coverage that are being mitigated by the vendor

B.

To establish a vendor selection process

C.

To document the relationship between the company and the vendor

D.

To define the partnership for long-term success

Question 68

When creating contractual agreements and procurement processes why should security requirements be included?

Options:

A.

To make sure they are added on after the process is completed

B.

To make sure the costs of security is included and understood

C.

To make sure the security process aligns with the vendor’s security process

D.

To make sure the patching process is included with the costs

Question 69

What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?

Options:

A.

To estimate risk and negate liability to the company

B.

To understand the attack vectors and attack sources

C.

To communicate risk and forecast resource needs

D.

To forecast usage and cost per software licensing

Question 70

An organization has a number of Local Area Networks (LANs) linked to form a single Wide Area Network

(WAN). Which of the following would BEST ensure network continuity?

Options:

A.

Third-party emergency repair contract

B.

Pre-built servers and routers

C.

Permanent alternative routing

D.

Full off-site backup of every server

Question 71

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of applied controls

B.

Validate security program resource requirements

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

Question 72

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

Which of the following frameworks and standards will BEST fit the organization as a baseline for their security program?

Options:

A.

NIST and Privacy Regulations

B.

ISO 27000 and Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards

C.

NIST and data breach notification laws

D.

ISO 27000 and Human resources best practices

Question 73

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for discovering common technical vulnerabilities within the

IT environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing system administrator logs

B.

Auditing configuration templates

C.

Checking vendor product releases

D.

Performing system scans

Question 74

Which of the following provides an independent assessment of a vendor’s internal security controls and overall posture?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business goals

B.

ISO27000 accreditation

C.

PCI attestation of compliance

D.

Financial statements

Question 75

A system is designed to dynamically block offending Internet IP-addresses from requesting services from a secure website. This type of control is considered

Options:

A.

Zero-day attack mitigation

B.

Preventive detection control

C.

Corrective security control

D.

Dynamic blocking control

Question 76

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

Options:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

Question 77

Which of the following best describes the sensors designed to project and detect a light beam across an area?

Options:

A.

Smoke

B.

Thermal

C.

Air-aspirating

D.

Photo electric

Question 78

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

Symmetric encryption in general is preferable to asymmetric encryption when:

Options:

A.

The number of unique communication links is large

B.

The volume of data being transmitted is small

C.

The speed of the encryption / deciphering process is essential

D.

The distance to the end node is farthest away

Question 79

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for performing assessments of the security portfolio?

Options:

A.

To assure that the portfolio is aligned to the needs of the broader organization

B.

To create executive support of the portfolio

C.

To discover new technologies and processes for implementation within the portfolio

D.

To provide independent 3rd party reviews of security effectiveness

Question 80

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

When adjusting the controls to mitigate the risks, how often should the CISO perform an audit to verify the controls?

Options:

A.

Annually

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Quarterly

D.

Never

Question 81

A large number of accounts in a hardened system were suddenly compromised to an external party. Which of

the following is the MOST probable threat actor involved in this incident?

Options:

A.

Poorly configured firewalls

B.

Malware

C.

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

D.

An insider

Question 82

Which of the following is a common technology for visual monitoring?

Options:

A.

Closed circuit television

B.

Open circuit television

C.

Blocked video

D.

Local video

Question 83

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage their bank information?

Options:

A.

Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country

B.

Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity

C.

Force a change of all passwords

D.

Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN

Question 84

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Which of the following industry / sector neutral information security control frameworks should you recommend for implementation?

Options:

A.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53

B.

Payment Card Industry Digital Security Standard (PCI DSS)

C.

International Organization for Standardization – ISO 27001/2

D.

British Standard 7799 (BS7799)

Question 85

Which of the following set of processes is considered to be one of the cornerstone cycles of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 standard?

Options:

A.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

C.

Plan-Select-Implement-Evaluate

D.

SCORE (Security Consensus Operational Readiness Evaluation)

Question 86

A method to transfer risk is to:

Options:

A.

Implement redundancy

B.

move operations to another region

C.

purchase breach insurance

D.

Alignment with business operations

Question 87

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 88

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question 89

An audit was conducted and many critical applications were found to have no disaster recovery plans in place. You conduct a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to determine impact to the company for each application. What should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Determine the annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Create a crisis management plan

C.

Create technology recovery plans

D.

Build a secondary hot site

Question 90

You have purchased a new insurance policy as part of your risk strategy. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question 91

Dataflow diagrams are used by IT auditors to:

Options:

A.

Order data hierarchically.

B.

Highlight high-level data definitions.

C.

Graphically summarize data paths and storage processes.

D.

Portray step-by-step details of data generation.

Question 92

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

Options:

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question 93

During the course of a risk analysis your IT auditor identified threats and potential impacts. Next, your IT auditor should:

Options:

A.

Identify and evaluate the existing controls.

B.

Disclose the threats and impacts to management.

C.

Identify information assets and the underlying systems.

D.

Identify and assess the risk assessment process used by management.

Question 94

A security professional has been promoted to be the CISO of an organization. The first task is to create a security policy for this organization. The CISO creates and publishes the security policy. This policy however, is ignored and not enforced consistently. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the policy shortcomings?

Options:

A.

Lack of a formal security awareness program

B.

Lack of a formal security policy governance process

C.

Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities

D.

Lack of a formal risk management policy

Question 95

Assigning the role and responsibility of Information Assurance to a dedicated and independent security group is an example of:

Options:

A.

Detective Controls

B.

Proactive Controls

C.

Preemptive Controls

D.

Organizational Controls

Question 96

Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Attack vector

D.

Exploitation

Question 97

Information security policies should be reviewed:

Options:

A.

by stakeholders at least annually

B.

by the CISO when new systems are brought online

C.

by the Incident Response team after an audit

D.

by internal audit semiannually

Question 98

Your IT auditor is reviewing significant events from the previous year and has identified some procedural oversights. Which of the following would be the MOST concerning?

Options:

A.

Lack of notification to the public of disclosure of confidential information.

B.

Lack of periodic examination of access rights

C.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

D.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial of service attack on the network.

Question 99

After a risk assessment is performed, a particular risk is considered to have the potential of costing the organization 1.2 Million USD. This is an example of

Options:

A.

Risk Tolerance

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Risk Appetite

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Question 100

Which of the following is a critical operational component of an Incident Response Program (IRP)?

Options:

A.

Weekly program budget reviews to ensure the percentage of program funding remains constant.

B.

Annual review of program charters, policies, procedures and organizational agreements.

C.

Daily monitoring of vulnerability advisories relating to your organization’s deployed technologies.

D.

Monthly program tests to ensure resource allocation is sufficient for supporting the needs of the organization

Question 101

As a new CISO at a large healthcare company you are told that everyone has to badge in to get in the building. Below your office window you notice a door that is normally propped open during the day for groups of people to take breaks outside. Upon looking closer you see there is no badge reader. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing, this falls outside your area of influence.

B.

Close and chain the door shut and send a company-wide memo banning the practice.

C.

Have a risk assessment performed.

D.

Post a guard at the door to maintain physical security

Question 102

An organization has implemented a change management process for all changes to the IT production environment. This change management process follows best practices and is expected to help stabilize the availability and integrity of the organization’s IT environment. Which of the following can be used to measure the effectiveness of this newly implemented process:

Options:

A.

Number of change orders rejected

B.

Number and length of planned outages

C.

Number of unplanned outages

D.

Number of change orders processed

Question 103

Which of the following is used to establish and maintain a framework to provide assurance that information security strategies are aligned with organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Awareness

B.

Compliance

C.

Governance

D.

Management

Question 104

What is the relationship between information protection and regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

That all information in an organization must be protected equally.

B.

The information required to be protected by regulatory mandate does not have to be identified in the organizations data classification policy.

C.

That the protection of some information such as National ID information is mandated by regulation and other information such as trade secrets are protected based on business need.

D.

There is no relationship between the two.

Question 105

The CIO of an organization has decided to assign the responsibility of internal IT audit to the IT team. This is consider a bad practice MAINLY because

Options:

A.

The IT team is not familiar in IT audit practices

B.

This represents a bad implementation of the Least Privilege principle

C.

This represents a conflict of interest

D.

The IT team is not certified to perform audits

Question 106

An IT auditor has recently discovered that because of a shortage of skilled operations personnel, the security administrator has agreed to work one late night shift a week as the senior computer operator. The most appropriate course of action for the IT auditor is to:

Options:

A.

Inform senior management of the risk involved.

B.

Agree to work with the security officer on these shifts as a form of preventative control.

C.

Develop a computer assisted audit technique to detect instances of abuses of the arrangement.

D.

Review the system log for each of the late night shifts to determine whether any irregular actions occurred.

Question 107

Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?

Options:

A.

Trademark

B.

Patent

C.

Research Logs

D.

Copyright

Question 108

A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?

Options:

A.

Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.

B.

Amend the standard to permit the deployment.

C.

If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.

D.

Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.

Question 109

Why is it vitally important that senior management endorse a security policy?

Options:

A.

So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.

B.

So that employees will follow the policy directives.

C.

So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.

D.

So that they can be held legally accountable.

Question 110

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to follow a formal risk management process in an organization that hosts and uses privately identifiable information (PII) as part of their business models and processes?

Options:

A.

Need to comply with breach disclosure laws

B.

Need to transfer the risk associated with hosting PII data

C.

Need to better understand the risk associated with using PII data

D.

Fiduciary responsibility to safeguard credit card information

Question 111

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission is known as

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk acceptance

Question 112

Which of the following is considered to be an IT governance framework and a supporting toolset that allows for managers to bridge the gap between control requirements, technical issues, and business risks?

Options:

A.

Control Objective for Information Technology (COBIT)

B.

Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)

C.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

D.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Question 113

Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

low risk-tolerance

B.

high risk-tolerance

C.

moderate risk-tolerance

D.

medium-high risk-tolerance

Question 114

Which of the following information may be found in table top exercises for incident response?

Options:

A.

Security budget augmentation

B.

Process improvements

C.

Real-time to remediate

D.

Security control selection

Question 115

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 116

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

Question 117

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 118

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 119

The company decides to release the application without remediating the high-risk vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the company to release the application?

Options:

A.

The company lacks a risk management process

B.

The company does not believe the security vulnerabilities to be real

C.

The company has a high risk tolerance

D.

The company lacks the tools to perform a vulnerability assessment

Question 120

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

Options:

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

Question 121

Which of the following methodologies references the recommended industry standard that Information security project managers should follow?

Options:

A.

The Security Systems Development Life Cycle

B.

The Security Project And Management Methodology

C.

Project Management System Methodology

D.

Project Management Body of Knowledge

Question 122

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

Question 123

As the CISO for your company you are accountable for the protection of information resources commensurate with:

Options:

A.

Customer demand

B.

Cost and time to replace

C.

Insurability tables

D.

Risk of exposure

Question 124

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

Question 125

Which of the following best summarizes the primary goal of a security program?

Options:

A.

Provide security reporting to all levels of an organization

B.

Create effective security awareness to employees

C.

Manage risk within the organization

D.

Assure regulatory compliance

Question 126

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 127

An international organization is planning a project to implement encryption technologies to protect company confidential information. This organization has data centers on three continents. Which of the following would be considered a MAJOR constraint for the project?

Options:

A.

Time zone differences

B.

Compliance to local hiring laws

C.

Encryption import/export regulations

D.

Local customer privacy laws

Question 128

When considering using a vendor to help support your security devices remotely, what is the BEST choice for allowing access?

Options:

A.

Vendors uses their own laptop and logins with same admin credentials your security team uses

B.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with same admin credentials your security team uses

C.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

D.

Vendor uses their own laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

Question 129

The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?

Options:

A.

Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won’t cause any network impact

B.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS won’t cause any network impact because it will fail open

C.

Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility

D.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn’t block any legitimate traffic

Question 130

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 131

When should IT security project management be outsourced?

Options:

A.

When organizational resources are limited

B.

When the benefits of outsourcing outweigh the inherent risks of outsourcing

C.

On new, enterprise-wide security initiatives

D.

On projects not forecasted in the yearly budget

Question 132

Which of the following is the MOST important component of any change management process?

Options:

A.

Scheduling

B.

Back-out procedures

C.

Outage planning

D.

Management approval

Question 133

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 134

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 135

In order for a CISO to have true situational awareness there is a need to deploy technology that can give a real-time view of security events across the enterprise. Which tool selection represents the BEST choice to achieve situational awareness?

Options:

A.

Vmware, router, switch, firewall, syslog, vulnerability management system (VMS)

B.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS), firewall, switch, syslog

C.

Security Incident Event Management (SIEM), IDS, router, syslog

D.

SIEM, IDS, firewall, VMS

Question 136

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 137

An example of professional unethical behavior is:

Options:

A.

Gaining access to an affiliated employee’s work email account as part of an officially sanctioned internal investigation

B.

Sharing copyrighted material with other members of a professional organization where all members have legitimate access to the material

C.

Copying documents from an employer’s server which you assert that you have an intellectual property claim to possess, but the company disputes

D.

Storing client lists and other sensitive corporate internal documents on a removable thumb drive

Question 138

An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?

Options:

A.

Ineffective configuration management controls

B.

Lack of change management controls

C.

Lack of version/source controls

D.

High turnover in the application development department

Demo: 138 questions
Total 460 questions