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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 78 questions
Total 273 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

Options:

A.

To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

B.

To document all cloud services APIs

C.

To list all cloud-compliant software

D.

To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information

Question 2

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

Question 3

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

Options:

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

Question 4

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

Question 5

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

Options:

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

Question 6

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Question 7

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

Question 8

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

Options:

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

Question 9

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

Question 10

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

Options:

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

Question 11

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

Options:

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

Question 12

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

Question 13

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

Options:

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

Question 14

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

Options:

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

Question 15

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

Question 16

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Question 17

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

Question 18

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

Question 19

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Question 20

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

Options:

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

Question 21

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

Question 22

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

Options:

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

Question 23

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

Options:

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

Question 24

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

Question 25

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

Options:

A.

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

Question 26

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Options:

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

Question 27

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

Question 28

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Question 29

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

Question 30

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

Question 31

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Question 32

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Options:

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

Question 33

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

Question 34

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 35

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question 36

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

Question 37

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Question 38

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 39

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question 40

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

Question 41

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

Options:

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

Question 42

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Question 43

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question 44

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Question 45

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

Options:

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

Question 46

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

Question 47

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Question 48

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

Question 49

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

Options:

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

Question 50

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

Question 51

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

Question 52

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Question 53

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

Question 54

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 55

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Question 56

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 57

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 58

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

Question 59

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 60

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

Question 61

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

Question 62

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 63

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

Options:

A.

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

Question 64

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 65

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

Question 66

What is resource pooling?

Options:

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

Question 67

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 68

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 69

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

Question 70

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

Question 71

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Question 72

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

Question 73

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Question 74

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 75

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

Question 76

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

Question 77

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

Question 78

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Demo: 78 questions
Total 273 questions