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Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

A console password must be configured on the switch

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Question 2

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

The packets fail to match any permit statement

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

The ACL is empty

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Question 3

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

Both cable types support LP connectors

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Options:

Question 5

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

point-to-multipoint

point-to-point

broadcast

nonbroadcast

Question 6

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

It discards the packets.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Question 7

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

northbound API

REST API

SOAP API

southbound API

Question 8

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 9

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Question 10

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Question 11

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Question 12

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

Options:

Telnet

SSH

HTTP

HTTPS

TFTP

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

Question 14

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

global unicast

link-local

unique local

multicast

Question 15

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

IP SLA

syslog

NetFlow

SNMPv3

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 17

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

Question 18

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 19

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

Options:

control layer and the infrastructure layer

application layer and the infrastructure layer

application layer and the management layer

control layer and the application layer

Question 20

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Options:

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

transfers files between file systems on a router

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

Question 21

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

to pass traffic between different networks

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Options:

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

192.168.1.17

192.168.1.61

192.168.1.64

192.168.1.127

192.168.1.254

Question 24

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

SSID

radio

band

Layer 2

Question 25

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

port-to-multipoint

broadcast

point-to-point

nonbroadcast

Question 26

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Options:

ntp authenticate

ntp server

ntp peer

ntp master

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

10.10.10.0/28

10.10.13.0/25

10.10.13.144/28

10.10.13.208/29

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Question 29

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Options:

Question 30

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

management-plane

control-plane

data-plane

services-plane

Question 31

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

access - core - distribution - access

access - distribution - distribution - access

access - core - access

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Question 32

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

when the cable length limits are exceeded

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Question 33

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

configure switchport nonegotiate

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Question 34

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Question 35

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

They allow encrypted traffic.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Question 36

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

Question 37

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

access ports

Layer 3 main Interfaces

Layer 3 suninterfaces

trunk ports

Question 38

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

enable AAA override

enable RX-SOP

enable DTIM

enable Band Select

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question 40

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

HTTPS

RADIUS

TACACS+

HTTP

Question 41

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Question 42

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

in the MAC address table

in the CAM table

in the binding database

in the frame forwarding database

Question 43

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Options:

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Question 46

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

collision

CRC

runt

late collision

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

110

38443

3184439

Question 48

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 49

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Question 50

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

Options:

enable the PortFast feature on ports

implement port-based authentication

configure static ARP entries

configure ports to a fixed speed

shut down unused ports

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

longest prefix

metric

cost

administrative distance

Question 52

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Question 53

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

encrypts data before sending between data resources

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

Question 54

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

110

115

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Question 57

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Options:

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

Options:

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Question 59

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

shaping

classification

policing

marking

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Question 61

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 63

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

ip ssh version 2

line vty 0 4

crypto key generate rsa 1024

transport input ssh

Question 65

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Options:

Question 66

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 67

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

Run routing protocols.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Question 69

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

VLAN numbering

VLAN DSCP

VLAN tagging

VLAN marking

Question 70

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 71

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

lt requires multiple links between core switches

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Question 72

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

global unicast address

anycast address

multicast address

link-local address

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

Options:

SW1

SW2

SW3

SW4

Question 74

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

offer compression

increase security by using a WEP connection

provide authentication

protect traffic on open networks

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

F0/10

F0/11

F0/12

F0/13

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Option E

Question 77

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

HTTP

SSH

HTTPS

Telnet

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

GigabitEthernet0/0

GigabltEthornet0/1

GigabitEthernet0/2

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question 80

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

connects server and client devices to a network

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

provides wireless services to users in a building

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question 82

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

WLAN dynamic

management

trunk

access

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

10.10.10.5

10.10.11.2

10.10.12.2

10.10.10.9

Question 84

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

heavy traffic congestion

a duplex incompatibility

a speed conflict

queuing drops

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question 87

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

a lightweight access point

a firewall

a wireless LAN controller

a LAN switch

Question 88

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

router-id 10.0.0.15

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

ipospf priority 100

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 93

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

Question 94

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

disabled

listening

forwarding

learning

blocking

Question 95

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 96

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Question 98

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

correlates user activity with network events

Question 99

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Question 100

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

Disable AES encryption.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Question 102

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

Define a NAT pool on the router.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

There is an interface type mismatch

Question 104

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

WPA3

WPA

WEP

WPA2

Question 105

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

nothing plugged into the port

link flapping

shutdown command issued on the port

latency

Question 106

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Question 107

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 108

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 .password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Question 109

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

SYIM flood

reflection

teardrop

amplification

Question 110

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

unique local address

link-local address

aggregatable global address

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Question 111

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Question 112

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 113

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question 114

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Options:

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Question 117

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Question 118

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

outside global

outsdwde local

inside global

insride local

outside public

inside public

Question 119

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Question 120

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

enable dynamic ARP inspection

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

configure extended VLANs

Question 121

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

SNMP

DNS lookup

syslog

NTP

Question 122

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

lt drops the frame immediately.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Question 123

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

WPA2 + AES

WPA + AES

WEP

WPA + TKIP

Question 124

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

Options:

DHCP

STP

SNMP

DNS

Question 125

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A TCP connection has been torn down

An ICMP connection has been built

An interface line has changed status

A certificate has expired.

Question 126

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

ensures a loop-free physical topology

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question 127

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

Physical access control

Social engineering attack

brute force attack

user awareness

Question 128

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 129

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

Options:

TKIP with RC4

RC4

AES-128

AES-256

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

Options:

Layer 2 switch

Router

Load balancer

firewall

Question 131

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Question 132

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

serves as the network aggregation point

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

is the backbone for the network topology

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question 133

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Question 134

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

Options:

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.

The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Question 136

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

enforcing routing policies

marking interesting traffic for data polices

attaching users to the edge of the network

applying security policies

Question 137

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

Options:

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Question 138

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

Options:

overlay

northbound

underlay

southbound

Question 139

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Question 141

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 142

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 144

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

Options:

virtual routing and forwarding

network port ID visualization

virtual device contexts

server visualization

Question 145

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Options:

Question 146

What are network endpoints?

Options:

act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

a threat to the network if they are compromised

support inter-VLAN connectivity

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Question 147

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

configure IEEE 802.1p

configure IEEE 802.1q

configure ISL

configure DSCP

Question 148

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

Options:

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Question 149

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

Options:

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

moves packets within a VLAN

moves packets between different VLANs

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Question 150

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

VTP

DTP

egress traffic

ingress traffic

Question 151

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

ipv6 address dhcp

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

ipv6 address autoconfig

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Question 152

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Question 153

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

Question 154

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

10.4.4.4

10.4.4.5

172.23.103.10

172.23.104.4

Question 156

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Question 157

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

Question 158

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Question 159

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

Options:

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

Question 160

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

Question 161

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

Switch 1

Switch 2

Switch 3

Switch 4

Question 162

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

Options:

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Question 163

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

platform-as-a-service

software-as-a-service

network-as-a-service

infrastructure-as-a-service

Question 164

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

OpenFlow

OpenStack

OpFlex

REST

Question 165

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

Options:

switchport port-security violation access

switchport port-security violation protect

switchport port-security violation restrict

switchport port-security violation shutdown

Question 166

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

reduced management overhead on network routers

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

higher degree of availability

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Question 167

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

Options:

CPU ACL

TACACS

Flex ACL

RADIUS

Question 168

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

latency

port security violation

shutdown command issued on the port

nothing plugged into the port

Question 169

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Question 170

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

Question 171

Options:

switchport port-security violation access

switchport port-security violation protect

switchport port-security violation restrict

switchport port-security violation shutdown

Question 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

Options:

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Question 173

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Options:

Question 174

Which option about JSON is true?

Options:

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

used for storing information

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Question 175

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

Options:

Local

Client

Enterprise

Personal

Question 176

Which capability does TFTP provide?

Options:

loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices

provides authentication for data communications over a private data network

provides encryption mechanisms for file transfer across a WAN

provides secure file access within the LAN

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

Options:

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

Question 178

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

Options:

Question 179

What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA center from traditional campus device management?

Options:

CLI-oriented device

device-by-device hands-on

centralized

per-device

Question 180

After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 181

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Options:

Question 182

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 183

What does traffic shaping do?

Options:

It modifies the QoS attributes of a packet

It queues excess traffic

It organizes traffic into classes.

It sets QoS attributes within a packet.

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

Options:

Option

Question 185

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19

MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D

MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97

MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79

Question 186

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

Comply with PCI regulations

Comply with local law

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

Question 187

Which is a fact related to FTP?

Options:

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

It always operates without user authentication

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Question 188

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Options:

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 189

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

Question 190

A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

Configure high availability and redundancy tor the access points.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to It.

Question 191

Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

Options:

192.168.30.1

10.10 105

10.10.10.6

192.168.201

Question 192

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

Options:

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

Question 193

What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?

Options:

Router

Wireless controller

Anti software

Cisco DNA Center

Question 194

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

Options:

netstat-n

ipconfig

ifconfig

netstat-r

Question 195

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

Options:

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

Question 196

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 197

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

Options:

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

Question 198

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Options:

to protect against default gateway failures

to prevent loops in a network

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Question 199

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

It enables dynamic flow identification.

It enables policy-based routing.

It provides best-effort service.

It limits bandwidth usage.

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?

Options:

It creates a broadcast storm.

It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.

It shuts down the source port and places It In err-disable mode.

It floods the frame out of every port except the source port.

Question 201

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

FF00:1/12

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

FE80::1/10

Question 202

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

Options:

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

Question 203

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 204

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

Question 205

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 206

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Options:

CHANGE

UPDATE

POST

PUT

Question 207

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

Options:

BPDU guard

loop guard

portfast

uplinkfast

Question 208

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP slate on the right.

Options:

Question 209

What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

Options:

3DES

ESP

TLS

AES

Question 210

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

Question 211

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

Options:

10.10.10.5

10.10.10.3

10.10.10.4

10.10.10.2

Question 212

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

Options:

The control parameters of the MRP run

The creation date of the materials

The low-level code of the materials

The replenishment lead time of the materials

Question 213

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Question 214

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

Options:

255.255.248.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.255.192

255.255.240.0

Question 216

Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 217

Refer to the exhibit.

Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF

configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 218

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?

Options:

10.165 20.126

10.165.20.146

10.165.20.166

10.165 20.226

Question 219

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Question 220

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Options:

Question 221

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 222

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

Options:

It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.

It serves as a password lo protect access to MIB objects.

It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access

It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.

Question 223

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?

Options:

value

object

key

array

Question 224

Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.

Options:

Question 225

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

Question 226

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

It needs a high MTU between sites.

It has a high implementation cost.

It must have point-to-point communication.

It requires complex configuration.

It works only with BGP between sites.

Question 227

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

broadcast to all ports on the switch

flooded to all ports except the origination port

forwarded to the first available port

inspected and dropped by the switch

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit.

A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:

• accommodates current configured VLANs

• expands the range to include VLAN 20

• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs

Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

Options:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Question 229

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

Options:

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Question 230

Refer to the exhibit.

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

Options:

Option

Question 231

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

inspecting specific files and file types for malware

authenticating end users

URL filtering

Question 232

Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?

Options:

hypervisor

CPU

physical enclosure

Question 233

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

Question 234

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

Question 235

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 236

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

Question 237

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

Question 238

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Answer:

See the solution below in Explanation.

Explanation:

To configure static routing on R1 to ensure that it prefers the path through R2 to reach only PC1 on R4’s LAN, you need to create a static route for the host 10.0.0.100/8 with a next-hop address of 20.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R2’s interface connected to R1. You also need to assign a lower administrative distance (AD) to this route than the default AD of 1 for static routes, so that it has a higher preference over other possible routes. For example, you can use an AD of 10 for this route. To create this static route, you need to enter the following commands on R1’s console:

R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 20.0.0.2 10 R1(config)#end

To configure static routing on R1 that ensures that traffic sourced from R1 will take an alternate path through R3 to PC1 in the event of an outage along the primary path, you need to create another static route for the host 10.0.0.100/8 with a next-hop address of 40.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R3’s interface connected to R1. You also need to assign a higher AD to this route than the AD of the primary route, so that it has a lower preference and acts as a backup route. For example, you can use an AD of 20 for this route. This type of static route is also known as a floating static route. To create this static route, you need to enter the following commands on R1’s console:

R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 40.0.0.2 20 R1(config)#end

To configure default routes on R1 and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops, you need to create a static route for the network 0.0.0.0/0 with a next-hop address of the ISP’s interface connected to each router respectively. A default route is a special type of static route that matches any destination address and is used when no other specific route is available. The ISP’s interface connected to R1 has an IP address of 10.0.0.4, and the ISP’s interface connected to R3 has an IP address of 50.0.0.4. To create these default routes, you need to enter the following commands on each router’s console:

On R1: R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.4 R1(config)#end

On R3: R3#configure terminal R3(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 50.0.0.4 R3(config)#end

Question 239

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

Question 240

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Answer:

See the Explanation for the solution.

Explanation:

To subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the host portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32 sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new subnet mask will be /21 or 255.255.248.0. To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit (32) to the third octet of the network address (0), which gives you 172.25.32.0/21 as the second subnet. The first usable IP address in this subnet is 172.25.32.1, and the last usable IP address is 172.25.39.254.
To assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw101, you need to enter the following commands on the device console:

Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ip address 172.25.32.1 255.255.248.0 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-if)#end

To assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102, you need to enter the following commands on the device console:

Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ip address 172.25.39.254 255.255.248.0 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-if)#end

To subnet an IPv6 GUA to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the interface identifier portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32 sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new prefix length will be /69 or ffff:ffff:ffff:fff8::/69 (assuming that your IPv6 GUA has a /64 prefix by default). To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit (32) to the fourth hextet of the network address (0000), which gives you xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::/69 as the second subnet (where xxxx:xxxx:xxxx is your IPv6 GUA prefix). The first and last IPv6 addresses in this subnet are xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::1 and xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0027:ffff:ffff:ffff:fffe respectively.
To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on Sw101, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):

Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::20::1/69 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-if)#end

To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on Sw102, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):

Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::27::fffe/69 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-if)#end

Question 241

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Answer:

Solution is given below explanation.

Explanation:

To configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 44, configure it between switches SW1 and SW2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides, configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link, configure the trunk link with 802.1q tags, and configure VLAN ‘MONITORING’ as the untagged VLAN of the EtherChannel, you need to follow these steps:

On both SW1 and SW2, enter the global configuration mode by using the configure terminal command.
On both SW1 and SW2, select the two interfaces that will form the EtherChannel by using the interface range ethernet 0/0 - 1 command. This will enter the interface range configuration mode.
On both SW1 and SW2, set the protocol to LACP by using the channel-protocol lacp command.
On both SW1 and SW2, assign the interfaces to an EtherChannel group number 44 by using the channel-group 44 mode active command. This will create a logical interface named Port-channel44 and set the LACP mode to active on both ends. The LACP mode must match on both ends for the EtherChannel to form.
On both SW1 and SW2, exit the interface range configuration mode by using the exit command.
On both SW1 and SW2, enter the Port-channel interface configuration mode by using the interface port-channel 44 command.
On both SW1 and SW2, configure the Port-channel interface as a trunk link by using the switchport mode trunk command.
On both SW1 and SW2, configure the Port-channel interface to use 802.1q tags for VLAN identification by using the switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q command.
On both SW1 and SW2, configure VLAN ‘MONITORING’ as the untagged VLAN of the Port-channel interface by using the switchport trunk native vlan MONITORING command.
On both SW1 and SW2, exit the Port-channel interface configuration mode by using the exit command.
On both SW1 and SW2, save the configuration to NVRAM by using the copy running-config startup-config command.

Question 242

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 243

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Cisco 200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam Practice Test

Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

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