Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
What is a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit.
If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )
What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?
What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN network? (Choose two.)
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Refer the exhibit.
What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?
Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?
What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
How do UTP and STP cables compare?
What is the primary purpose of private address space?
Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are represented?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Refer to the exhibit.
A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?
Refer to the exhibit.
In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?
NO: 222
Refer to the exhibit.
Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is missing from this output for it to be executed?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
What is a zero-day exploit?
Refer to the exhibit.
SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both Sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?
What is a function performed by a web server?
Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF
configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?
What is a feature of WPA?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
What is a specification for SSIDS?
Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destination of a packet differs from the security termination point?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.
What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?
Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?
A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
Refer to Itie exhibit
A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:
* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically
* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen
Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)
A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?
Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?
A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their Importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?
Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?
Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined tot the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route? A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 32
What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?
What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:
• Create the username as CCUser.
• Create the password as NA!2Scc.
• Encrypt the user password.
What must be configured to meet the requirements?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?
Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?
Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
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Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.
What is the first step to verify connectivity?
A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2.Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.
