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CIMA F1 Financial Reporting Exam Practice Test

Demo: 74 questions
Total 248 questions

Financial Reporting Questions and Answers

Question 1

Below are extracts from LLL's financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X2.

Depreciation of $25,000 was charged on properly, plant and equipment in the year and there were no disposals

What is the cash generated from operations for inclusion in LLL's statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X2?

Options:

A.

$355 000

B.

$390,000

C.

$415,000

D.

$435,000

Question 2

Statements of financial position as at 31 December 20X8 for JK, LM and PQ are as follows:

[1] JK purchased 80% of LM's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $260,000 when the retained earnings of JK were $110,000. At that date the non-controlling interest had a fair value of $63,000.

[2] JK purchased 25% of PQ's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $90,000 when the retained earnings of PQ were $96,000.

[3] During the year JK sold goods to LM for $32,000 at a mark up of 33.33% on cost. Half of the goods were still in LM's inventory at 31 December 20X8.

[4] LM transferred $32,000 to JK on 30 December 20X8 in settlement of the inter-group trade. JK did not record the cash in its financial records until 2 January 20X9.

Calculate the value of inventory that would be included in JK's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 December 20X8.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 3

WX is considering an investment in ST.

At 31 December 20X2 ST had the following balances in its statement of financial position:

Which of the following would cause ST to become an associate investment of WX?

Options:

A.

WX purchases 15,000 of ST's $1 equity shares and 20,000 of ST's $1 preference shares.

B.

WX purchases 25,000 of ST's $1 equity shares.

C.

WX purchases 75,000 of ST's $1 equity shares.

D.

WX purchases 50,000 of ST's $1 preference shares.

Question 4

Which of the following is a feature of a direct tax?

Options:

A.

The formal incidence and effective incidence are usually the same.

B.

It is levied on one part of the economy with the intention that it will be passed on to another.

C.

It is not levied on the eventual payer of the tax.

D.

It cannot be related to the individual circumstances of the tax payer.

Question 5

If an entity makes a capital loss in a period, which of the following is the most likely way that will be allowed for relieving that capital loss?

Options:

A.

Carry forward and set against future capital gains.

B.

Use group loss relief to transfer the capital loss to another group entity.

C.

Carry backwards and set against previous years trading profits.

D.

Carry forward and set against future trading profits

Question 6

Which of the following would be capitalized as an intangible asset in accordance with IAS 38 Intangible Assets?

Options:

A.

The cost of market research into a new geographical market.

B.

The cost of assets used in the research and development department.

C.

The cost of testing a new process which will create efficiency savings of 10% once implemented.

D.

The cost of advertising the launch of a new product.

Question 7

An entity purchased equipment on 1 April 20X4 for $200,000. The equipment was depreciated using the reducing balance method at 20% a year.

Depreciation was charged up to and including 31 March 20X7. At that date the recoverable amount of the equipment was $94,000.

Calculate the impairment loss on the equipment in accordance with IAS 36 Impairment of Assets.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 8

When a trading loss is incurred by an entity, the entity may be able to claim loss relief. The way in which loss relief is claimed vanes from country to country.

Which of the following is NOT normally a way of claiming loss relief for a trading loss?

Options:

A.

Offset The trading loss against its trading profits in future periods

B.

Offset the trading loss against capital gams in previous periods

C.

Offset the trading loss against group entity profits.

D.

Carry the trading loss backwards against trading profits in previous periods.

Question 9

CDO is an entity that is preparing to apply to its local stock market for a listing. CDO is currently run by a board of ten directors, each of whom manages a department of CDO. The board is chaired by Ms E who is also CDO's Chief Executive Officer.

Which TWO of the following actions would assist CDO to meet corporate governance regulations?

Options:

A.

Separate the roles of Chair of the Board and Chief Executive Officer and appoint different individuals to each role

B.

Ensure that no part of any director’s remuneration is linked to corporate or individual performance

C.

Appoint a number of non-executive directors to the board of CDO.

D.

Allow all directors to vote on their own remuneration increases

E.

Allow the Chief Executive Officer to appoint all new directors when a vacancy arises

Question 10

Which of the following would NOT be a source of taxation rules for a country?

Options:

A.

Double tax treaties

B.

Directives from international bodies

C.

International accounting standards

D.

Precedents based on previous legislation

Question 11

ABC has the following working capital ratios at 31 December 20X2:

During the year ended 31 December 20X4 credit purchases were $1,700,000 and at 31 December 20X4 the outstanding trade payables balance was $340,000

Calculate the working capital cycle for ABC.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number of days and assume there are 365 days in a year.

Options:

Question 12

In Country X, trading losses in any year can be carried back and set off against trading profits in the previous year, with any unrelieved losses carried forward to set against the first available trade profits in future years.

GH had the following taxable profits and losses in years 20X1 to 20X4:

What are the taxable profits for 20X4, assuming the most efficient use of the loss is made?

Options:

A.

$65,000

B.

$95,000

C.

$100,000

D.

$70,000

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are potential implications to a manufacturing business of holding insufficient inventory of raw materials?

Options:

A.

Lost sales

B.

Additional storage costs

C.

Purchasing inventory at a higher price

D.

Increased risk of obsolescence

E.

Wasted production

Question 14

Extreme nepotism within Company E shows a failure to correctly observe which of the following principles of corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Role and responsibilities of the board

B.

Rights and equitable treatment of shareholders

C.

Interests of other stakeholders

D.

Integrity and ethical behaviour

E.

Disclosure and transparency

Question 15

Company Y is using some of the money from a share issue to purchase a new office building. The company is also using some of the money to purchase inventories. Which method of financing is this?

Options:

A.

Conservative financing

B.

Matching financing

C.

Aggressive financing

Question 16

Which of the following is an example of a progressive tax?

Options:

A.

Personal income tax of 10% on earnings up to $10,000, then at 15% over $10,001

B.

Corporate income tax of 20% on earnings up to $100,000, then at 10% over $100,000

C.

Corporate income tax of 20% on all earnings

D.

Personal income tax of 10% and corporate income tax of 20%

Question 17

An entity has a number of subsidiary and associate investments.

Which of the following must be disclosed in the entity's separate financial statements if it is exempt from presenting consolidated financial statements?

Options:

A.

The bases on which significant investments in subsidiaries and associates have been accounted for in those separate financial statements.

B.

A copy of the summarised financial statements of each of its subsidiaries.

C.

A list of all its significant investments in subsidiaries and associates which includes the date of acquisition and the price paid.

D.

A list of its top ten shareholdings including number of shares held and their market value.

Question 18

Which of the following would be classified as a parent and subsidiary relationship in accordance with IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements?

Options:

A.

Entity A owns 30% of another entity's equity shares and has the power to appoint or remove the majority of the members of the board of directors and control of the entity is through that board.

B.

Entity B owns 20% of another entity's equity shares and has an agreement with other equity shareholders of that entity that gives it power over a further 20% of the equity voting rights.

C.

Entity C owns 45% of another entity's equity shares and can exercise significant influence over that entity's financial and operating policy decisions.

D.

Entity D owns 25% of another entity's equity shares and associated voting rights and 100% of its preference shares.

Question 19

Statements of financial position for FG, IJ and KL at 31 December 20X5 include the following balances:

FG acquired 90% of IJ's equity shares for $358,000 on 1 July 20X5 when IJ's retained earnings were $98,000.

FG acquired 100% of KL's equity shares for $360,000 on 1 January 20X5 when KL's retained earnings were $155,000.

FG used the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interests at acquisition.

KL sold a piece of land to FG for $130,000 on 1 September 20X5. At the date of transfer the land had a carrying value of $50,000.

The management of FG expect KL to make profits in the future and no impairment ot its goodwill was proposed at 31 December 20X5.

Calculate the non-controlling interest balance in FG's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5.

Give your answer to nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 20

An entity opens a new factory and receives a government grant of $25,000 towards the cost of new plant and equipment. This new plant and equipment originally costs $100,000.

The entity uses the net cost method allowed by IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance to record government grants of this nature. All plant and equipment is depreciated at 20% a year on a straight line basis.

Calculate the amount of depreciation to be included for this plant and equipment in the statement of profit of loss for the factory's first year of operation.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 21

Country X levies a duty on alcoholic drinks. Where the alcohol content is above 40% by volume the duty levied is $5 per 1 litre bottle.

What type of tax is this duty?

Options:

A.

Specific unit tax

B.

Ad valorem tax

C.

Direct tax

D.

Single-stage sales tax

Question 22

Which of the following is a characteristic of a defined contribution post-employment benefit scheme?

Options:

A.

The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees depends on how well the scheme's investments have performed.

B.

The employer would make additional contributions into the scheme if the actuary predicted a shortfall in the funds available to pay post-employment benefits.

C.

The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees is determined at the date of their retirement using a predefined formula.

D.

The employer may take a contributions holiday and stop paying contributions for a period, if the scheme's assets appear to be more than are required to meet the scheme's obligations.

Question 23

The following information relates to AA.

Extract of Trial Balance at 31 December 20X4;

Notes

(i) Inventory at 31 December 20X4 was valued at cost at $30.

(ii) The loan which was received on 1 July 20X4 is repayable in 20X9.

(iii) Corporate income tax represents an over-provision of tax for the year ended 31 December 20X3. AA reported a loss for tax purposes for the year ended 31 December 20X4 and a tax refund is expected amounting to $20.

(iv) Cost of sales, administration and distribution costs need to be adjusted for the following:

What figures should be entered in the Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31 December 20X4 in relation to Administration and Distribution costs?

Options:

A.

Adminsitration $136 Distribution $120

B.

Administration $120 Distribution $87

C.

Administration $141 Distribution $117

D.

Administration $146 Distribution $114

Question 24

When developing local Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (known as local GAAP) some countries start with International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs) which are then amended to reflect local needs and conditions.

This type of approach is classified as:

Options:

A.

Adoption of IFRSs as local GAAP.

B.

Using IFRSs as a model for local GAAP.

C.

IFRSs having a persuasive influence in formulating local GAAP.

D.

IFRSs having little or no impact in formulating local GAAP.

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a principle in the CIMA Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Professional competence and due care

C.

Timeliness

D.

Objectivity

Question 26

Which of the following is the responsibility of the International Financial Reporting Standards Interpretations Committee?

Options:

A.

The development and publication of new international financial reporting standards.

B.

To provide a forum for interested parties to participate in the formulation of international financial reporting standards.

C.

To provide authoritative guidance on the application of international financial reporting standards where conflicting practice has developed.

D.

To advise the International Accounting Standards Board on the agenda and priorities for future work.

Question 27

On 31 March 20X1 OP decided to sell a property. On that date this property was correctly classified as held for sale in accordance with IFRS 5 Non-Current Assets Held For Sale And Discontinued Operations.

In the draft financial statements of OP for the year ended 31 October 20X1 this property has been included at its fair value, which was $520,000 lower than its carrying value. This has resulted in a charge to profit or loss, the result of which is that the draft financial statements show a loss of $450,000 for the year to 31 October 20X1. When the management board of OP reviewed the draft financial statements it was unhappy about the loss and decided that the property should be reclassified as a non-current asset and reinstated to its original value, despite the fact that its plans for the property had not changed.

In accordance with the ethical principle of professional competence and due care, which THREE of the following statements explain how this property should be accounted for in the financial statements of OP for the year ended 31 October 20X1?

Options:

A.

The property should be treated as a non-current asset held for sale from 31 March 20X1.

B.

The property should be treated as a non-current asset held for sale from 1 November 20X1.

C.

The property should not be depreciated after 31 March 20X1.

D.

The impairment of $520,000 should be shown as an expense in the statement of profit or loss.

E.

The property should be depreciated until 31 October 20X1.

F.

The property impairment should not be recorded until the sale has completed.

Question 28

According to IAS 21 The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates, an entity should determine its functional currency.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that should be considered by an entity when determining its functional currency?

Options:

A.

The currency that mainly influences selling prices of the entity's goods and services.

B.

The currency that mainly influences labour, material and other costs.

C.

The currency used for published financial reports.

D.

The currency of the country whose competitive forces determine prices of goods and services.

Question 29

Country Q has the following rules in respect of capital tax on the disposal of assets:

*Capital gains are subject to tax at 25%.

*Capital losses can only be carried forward and offset against future capital gains.

The following data relates to ABC:

How much capital tax will be payable on the capital gain recorded in 20X3?

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 30

The International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting" identifies fundamental and enhancing qualitative characteristics of financial statements.

Which of the following is included within the fundamental characteristics?

Options:

A.

Comparability

B.

Verifiability

C.

Understandability

D.

Materiality

Question 31

Which THREE of the following are included within an entity's statement of profit or loss?

Options:

A.

Revaluation surplus

B.

Dividends paid

C.

Impairment loss

D.

Finance income

E.

Dividends revived

Question 32

On 1 May 20X8 DEF enters into a contract to lease plant with a fair value of $200,000. Annual lease payments of $50,000 are to be paid in advance and DEF incurred direct costs to arrange the lease of S2.000 The present value of future lease payments at 1 May 20X8 is $190,000.

What is the amount to be recognised as a right-of-use asset on 1 May 20X8?

Options:

A.

$192 000

B.

$200,000

C.

$240,000

D.

$242000

Question 33

In 20X4, DEF closed its business having made a trading loss of $160,000. In DEF's country of residence, trading losses may be carried back three years on a LIFO basis.

The profits for the last four years of trading were:

What are the taxable profits or losses for years 20X1 and 20X2?

Options:

A.

20X1 $10,000, 20X2 $113,000

B.

20X1 $143,000, 20X2 $ nil

C.

20X1 $150,000, 20X2 $133,000

D.

20X1 $150,000, 20X2 $nil

Question 34

Which of the following is not a possible tax rate structure?

Options:

A.

Progressive

B.

Proportional

C.

Direct

D.

Regressive

Question 35

Which THREE of the following must an auditor consider in order to form an opinion on the truth and fairness of an entity's financial statements?

Options:

A.

Whether the entity has kept proper accounting records.

B.

Whether the entity has complied with the relevant legislator requirements in respect of the necessary disclosures.

C.

Whether all the information and explanations necessary for the purposes of the audit have been received.

D.

Whether every transaction that underpins the financial statements has been correctly recorded.

E.

Whether the entity has been exposed to any fraud.

Question 36

In Country X corporate income tax is levied on profits as follows:

Which of the following describes the tax rate structure in Country X?

Options:

A.

Proportional

B.

Regressive

C.

Progressive

D.

Competent

Question 37

The following information is extracted from QQ's statement of financial position at 31 March:

Included in other payables is interest payable of $80,000 at 31 March 20X2 and $73,000 at 31 March 20X1.

The following information if included within QQ's statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X2.

Included within finance cost is $124,000 which relates to interest paid on a finance lease. QQ includes finance lease interest within financing activities on its statement of cash flows.

QQ is preparing its statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 March 20X2.

What cash outflow figure should be included for corporate income tax paid within the cash flow from operating activities section of the statement?

Give your answer to the nearest $000.

Options:

Question 38

In most developed countries employers deduct the tax from employees' pay each month and then pay the tax to the tax authorities on behalf of the employee on a monthly basis.

Which THREE of the following are advantages of this system to the employee?

Options:

A.

The tax is collected earlier than systems that assess earnings at the end of the year.

B.

The payment of tax is easier as the tax is deducted before the net salary is paid to the employee.

C.

Most of the administration costs are borne by the employees.

D.

The responsibility for the tax calculations rests with the employer and therefore there is less chance of mistakes being made.

E.

There is less chance of interest and penalties being levied on the employee by the tax authorities.

Question 39

Which of the following would NOT be assessed for tax under a Pay-As-You-Earn system?

Options:

A.

Profit-sharing payments received by an employee.

B.

Benefits in kind received by an employee.

C.

Commissions received by an employee.

D.

The wealth of an employee.

Question 40

Entity T operates within several countries, but its country of residence is Country F. In 20X5, Entity T made $8.4 million in Country M. Country M has a flat rate corporation tax of 5.9%.

Country F and Country M operate a double taxation treaty which uses a foreign tax credit system. In Country F, there is a tax of 10% tax on all foreign income.

Taking into account the credit, what is the total tax liability that Entity T owes on its Country M income, in Country F?

Options:

A.

$344,400

B.

$495,600

C.

$840,000

D.

$450,000

Question 41

On 1 January 20X2 an entity began work on constructing a factory. It purchased the land for $14 million, built the factory buildings for $11 million and installed plant and equipment for $7 million. The project was completed on 31 December 20X3 when the factory was deemed ready to use, however, the factory did not start operations until 1 June 20X4.

To fund the project the entity borrowed $25 million on 1 January 20X2, with interest at 10% per year.

The loan was repaid in full on 31 December 20X4.

Calculate the total amount to be added to the cost of property, plant and equipment in respect of the above development.

Give your answer to the nearest $ million.

Options:

Question 42

UV's financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X8 were approved for publication on 30 June 20X8.

In accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period, which of the following material events would have been classified as a non-adjusting event in these financial statements?

Options:

A.

On 1 June 20X8 UV's auditors discovered that an error in valuation had caused the closing inventory to be overvalued by $150,000.

B.

On 10 April 20X8 UV received a communication stating that one of its customers had ceased trading and gone into liquidation. The balance outstanding at 31 March 20X8 was unlikely to be paid.

C.

On 1 June 20X8 UV was awarded damages of $70,000 in respect of a legal claim that it had made against the local government authority in October 20X7.

D.

On 28 April 20X8 a fire destroyed half of UV's main production facility. Output was severely reduced for six months.

Question 43

Which THREE of the following statements are NOT true of the IFRS Foundation trustees?

Options:

A.

Are involved in the technical matters relating to accounting standards

B.

Are mainly from Europe and the USA

C.

Receive funding by donations from the general public

D.

Responsible for appointing members of the IA5B

E.

Responsible of appointing members of the IFRS interpretations committee

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the International Accounting Standards Board?

Options:

A.

Preparation of international financial reporting standards.

B.

Fundraising for the international accounting standards committee foundation.

C.

Withdrawal of international accounting reporting standards.

D.

Final approval of interpretations by the international financial reporting interpretations committee.

Question 45

AAA has the following working capital ratios at 30 March 20X4:

During the year ended 30 March 20X4 credit purchases were $3,600 and at 30 March 20X4 the outstanding trade payables amounted to $522.

The year ended 30 March 20X4 was not a leap year.

Calculate the working capital cycle for AAA.

Give your answer to one decimal place.

Options:

Question 46

OP is considering investing in government bonds. The current price of a $100 bond with 8 years to maturity is $88.

The bonds have a coupon rate of 6% and repay face value of $100 at the end of the 8 years.

Calculate the yield to maturity.

Give your answer to one decimal place.

Options:

Question 47

A conservative policy for financing working capital is one where short-term finance is used to fund:

Options:

A.

All of the fluctuating current assets and part of the permanent current assets.

B.

Part of the fluctuating current assets, but no part of the permanent current assets.

C.

All of the fluctuating current assets, but no part of the permanent current assets.

D.

Part of the fluctuating current assets and part of the permanent current assets.

Question 48

A non-executive director of a company is somebody who:

Options:

A.

is involved in making operational decisions m the company

B.

need not have experience of the industry in which the company operates

C.

does not earn remuneration from the company

D.

can be appointed Chief Executive Officer of the company.

Question 49

The following information is extracted from the statement of financial position for ZZ at 31 March 20X3:

Included within cost of sales in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is $20 million relating to the loss on the sale of plant and equipment which had cost $100 million in June 20X1.

Depreciation is charged on all plant and equipment at 25% on a straight line basis with a full year's depreciation charged in the year of acquisition and none in the year of sale.

The revaluation reserve relates to the revaluation of ZZ's property.

The total depreciation charge for property, plant and equipment in ZZ's statement of profit of loss for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is $80 million.

The corporate income tax expense in ZZ's statement of profit or loss for year ended 31 March 20X3 is $28 million.

ZZ is preparing its statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 March 20X3.

What figure should be included within cash flows from investing activities for the proceeds of sale of plant and equipment?

Options:

A.

$55 million

B.

$95 million

C.

$80 million

D.

$120 million

Question 50

TUV owns property that has a carrying amount greater than its original cost due to a revaluation 2 years ago. The property continues to be used by TUV up lo the date of its disposal and is sold for more than its carrying amount.

Which THREE of the following correctly describe the accounting treatment for the disposal of the property?

Options:

A.

The gam on disposal is recognised in the statement ot profit or loss

B.

The gain on disposal is recognised in other comprehensive income

C.

The property is depreciated based on its original cost up to the date ot disposal

D.

The remaining balance on the revaluation surplus is transferred to the statement of profit or loss

E.

The property is depreciated based on its revalued amount up to the date of disposal

F.

The remaining balance on the revaluation surplus is transferred to retained earnings

Question 51

AB sells to ST, a group entity, 10,000 units at $2.50 each. The market value was $6 each.

The effect on AB of the transfer pricing legislation on this transaction would be to: .

Options:

Question 52

Which THREE of the following are part of the International Accounting Standards Committee (IASC) Foundation structure?

Options:

A.

International Accounting Standards Board

B.

Standards Advisory Council

C.

International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee

D.

International Organisation of Securities Commission

E.

Standards Application Council

F.

International Financial Reporting Evaluations Committee

Question 53

Which THREE of the following matters should an entity consider when determining the credit terms granted to a customer?

Options:

A.

Typical credit terms operating within the industry

B.

Risk of non-payment

C.

Selling price of the goods being sold to the customer

D.

Bargaining power of the customer

E.

Number of suppliers

F.

Discount offered by suppliers for early payment

Question 54

An entity purchased an asset on 1 April 20X4 for $320,000, exclusive of import duties of $32,000.

The entity sold the asset on 31 March 20X9 for $480,000 incurring legal fees of $12,000.

The entity is resident in Country Y where chargeable capital gains are taxed at 20% and no indexation is allowed.

Calculate the amount of capital tax that the entity is due to pay.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 55

XYZ is a manufacturer. Which of these should be classified as other comprehensive income in XYZs statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income for the year ended 31 December 20X4?

Options:

A.

Interest received on savings

B.

Revaluation surplus on properly

C.

Dividend income from investments

D.

Gain on disposal of machinery

Question 56

Which of the following would NOT be a risk or impact of overtrading?

Options:

A.

Increase in interest payments

B.

Increased borrowings

C.

Shortage of working capital

D.

Expanding too quickly

Question 57

Which of the following is a condition that has to be met for an entity to be exempt the requirement to prepare consolidated financial statements?

Options:

A.

The parent entity's debt or equity instruments are not traded in a public market.

B.

The parent entity's equity instruments are only traded in one country.

C.

The parent's equity has a nominal value of less than $1 million.

D.

The parent's net asset value is less than $1 million.

Question 58

At 31 December 20X4 the directors of MNO decide to revalue its property. Before revaluation adjustments the balances relating to property are as follows:

The property has been revalued at $1,600,000.

How much will be included within MNO's statement of financial position at 31 December 20X4 for revaluation surplus?

Options:

A.

$400,000

B.

$1,190,000

C.

$1,600,000

D.

$810,000

Question 59

Which THREE of the following are included in the International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting"?

Options:

A.

The objective of financial statements

B.

Specification of the financial statements that must be presented

C.

Qualitative characteristics of financial statements

D.

Definition of the headings to use in financial statements

E.

The elements of financial statements

F.

The formats of financial statements

Question 60

XY acquired 75% of the equity shares of CD on 1 January 20X2 for $230,000.

On 1 January 20X2 CD had the following balances:

XY uses the proportionate share of net assets method to value non controlling interest at acquisition.

Calculate the goodwill arising on the acquisition of CD.

Give your answer to nearest whole number.

Options:

Question 61

Statements of financial position for YZ, BC and DE at 31 March 20X2 include the following balances:

YZ purchased 90% of BC's equity shares for $508,000 on 1 January 20X2. On 1 January 20X2 BC's retained earnings were $183,000. YZ uses the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interest at acquisition.

YZ purchased 30% of DE's equity shares on 1 April 20X1 for $112,000. DE's retained earnings at 1 April 20X1 were $88,000.

On 1 February 20X2 YZ sold goods to BC for $28,000 at a mark up of 25% on cost. All the goods were still in BC's inventory at 31 March 20X2.

Calculate the amount of the non-controlling interest to be included in YZ's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 March 20X2.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 62

An entity bought a capital item for $110,000 on 1 March 20X4 incurring legal fees at the date of purchase of $2,500.

On 1 May 20X4 additional costs classified as capital expenditure by the tax rules of the country of $25,000 were incurred in respect of the asset. On 1 June 20X4 repairs not classified as capital expenditure were incurred at a cost of $15,000.

The asset was sold for $250,000 on 30 November 20X8 and costs to sell were incurred of $4,300.

Calculate the chargeable gain on the disposal.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

Options:

Question 63

Which of the following is a type of short-term finance?

Options:

A.

Trade payables

B.

Trade receivables

C.

Interest bearing bank deposit

D.

Loan repayable in five years

Question 64

Company R use a defined benefit plan pension scheme. Employee UW has been working for Company R for 25 years. The defined benefit plan is 1.5% of the employee's annual salary during their time at the company,

for every year of employment.

Employee UW started on a £18,000 per annum salary. After 10 years of employment. Employee UW received a promotion and began earning £22,000. After another 3 years of employment. Employee UW got promoted

to a wage of £35,000, and is still on this salary now. How much pension has Employee UW accumulated since working at Company R?

Options:

A.

£9,900

B.

£18,000

C.

£6,750

D.

£9,375

Question 65

The external auditors have completed their audit and have discovered a material but not pervasive error in the financial statements of JK.

The directors of JK have refused to change the financial statements.

What type of modified audit report should be issued?

Options:

A.

Disclaimer of opinion

B.

Emphasis of matter opinion

C.

Adverse opinion

D.

Qualified opinion

Question 66

KL has S90.000 of plant and machinery which was acquired on 1 June 20X4. Tax depreciation rates on plant and machinery are 20% reducing balance. All plant and machinery was sold for 560,000 on 1 June 20X6

Calculate the tax balancing allowance or charge on disposal tor the year ended 31 May 20X7 and state the effect on the taxable profit.

Options:

A.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

B.

A balancing charge of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

C.

A balancing charge of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

D.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

Question 67

CDE has been offering its customers a 50-day credit period, but now wants to improve its cash flow.

CDE is proposing to offer a 2% discount for payment in 20 days. "

Assume a 365-day year and an invoice value of $100

Which of the following is the effective annual interest rate CDE will incur for this action?

Options:

A.

27.9%

B.

44.6%

C.

15.9%

D.

49.8%

Question 68

Which THREE of the following are principles identified by the Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Professional competence and expertise

B.

Professional behavior

C.

Understandability

D.

Professional competence and due care

E.

Confidentiality

F.

Neutral

Question 69

A building was purchased on 1 January 20X1 for $300,000 and had a useful economic life of 40 years. On 1 January 20X5 the building was revalued by a professional surveyor at $450,000. Directors decided to incorporate the revalued amount into the financial statements.

The accounting entries to record the initial revaluation of the building in the financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X5 will be to debit building cost $150,000 and then:

Options:

A.

credit accumulated depreciation $37,500 and credit revaluation reserve $112,500.

B.

credit accumulated depreciation $30,000 and credit revaluation reserve $120,000.

C.

debit accumulated depreciation $30,000 and credit revaluation reserve $180,000.

D.

debit accumulated depreciation $37,500 and credit revaluation reserve $187,500.

Question 70

Which THREE of the following statements about government grants are INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

A grant is recognised as revenue

B.

Grants must not be deducted from the related expenses in financial statements

C.

Capital grants relate to cash inflow and outflow

D.

A compensatory grant should be recognised in statements when it is received, not when the expenses it applies to occurred

E.

A grant is recognised only when there is reasonable assurance that the entity will comply with any conditions attached to the grant

Question 71

MNO is a manufacturer. Which TWO of the following costs will MNO add to the cost of its finished goods inventory in accordance with IAS 2: Inventories?

Options:

A.

Warehouse rent

B.

Selling and distribution

C.

Abnormal material waste

D.

Import duties

E.

Direct labour

Question 72

Statements of financial position for YZ, BC and DE at 31 March 20X2 include the following balances:

YZ purchased 90% of BC's equity shares for $508,000 on 1 January 20X2. On 1 January 20X2 BC's retained earnings were $183,000. YZ uses the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interest at acquisition.

YZ purchased 30% of DE's equity shares on 1 April 20X1 for $112,000. DE's retained earnings at 1 April 20X1 were $88,000.

On 1 February 20X2 YZ sold goods to BC for $28,000 at a mark up of 25% on cost. All the goods were still in BC's inventory at 31 March 20X2.

Calculate the value of the investment in associate to be recognised in the consolidated statement of financial position at 31 March 20X2.

Give your answer to nearest whole $.

Options:

Question 73

Identify whether the scenarios below are examples of tax evasion or tax avoidance, by placing either tax evasion of tax avoidance against each one.

Options:

Question 74

Which of the following are techniques that can be used by a company to ensure they receive timely payment of receivables? Select ALL that apply:

Options:

A.

Offering cash or early payment discount

B.

Charging interest on late payments

C.

Assessing credit risk of customers before they are given credit

D.

Offering extended credit to return customers

E.

Offering free items

Demo: 74 questions
Total 248 questions