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Checkpoint 156-915.80 Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 75 questions
Total 502 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10 Questions and Answers

Question 1

MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should theadministrator do first?

Options:

A.

Upgrade Smartcenter to R80 first.

B.

Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.

C.

Upgrade every unit directly to R80.

D.

Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

Question 2

To run GAiA in 64bit mode, which of the following is true?

1) Run set edition default 64-bit.

2) Install more than 4 GB RAM.

3) Install more than 4 TB of Hard Disk.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 2

C.

2 and 3

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 3

Which Check Point tool allows you to open a debug file and see the VPN packet exchange details.

Options:

A.

PacketDebug.exe

B.

VPNDebugger.exe

C.

IkeView.exe

D.

IPSECDebug.exe

Question 4

Fill in the blank. You can set Acceleration to ON or OFF using command syntax ___________ .

Options:

Question 5

Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate via LDAP?

Options:

A.

Check Point Password

B.

Active DirectoryServer object

C.

Windows logon password

D.

WMI object

Question 6

MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness inthis environment?

Options:

A.

You must run an ADquery for every domain.

B.

Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.

C.

Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.

D.

Only Captive Portal can be used.

Question 7

Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?

Options:

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl sync

C.

fw ctl pstat

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 8

SmartReporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following examples, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.

B.

Possible worm/malware activity.

C.

Analyzing accessattempts via social-engineering.

D.

Tracking attempted port scans.

Question 9

MegaCorps' disaster recovery plan is past due for an update to the backup and restore section to enjoy the benefits of the new distributed R80 installation. You must propose a plan that meets the following required and desired objectives:

Required: Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired: Back up R80 components enforcing the Security Policies at least once a week.

Desired: Back up R80 logs at least once a week.

You develop a disaster recovery plan proposing the following:

* Use the utility cron to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.

* Configure the organization's routine backup software to back up files created by the command upgrade_export.

* Configure GAiA back up utility to back up Security Gateways every Saturday night.

* Use the utility cron to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.

* Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.

* Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.

The corporate IT change review committee decides your plan:

Options:

A.

meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B.

meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

C.

meets the rquired objective but does not meet either deisred objective.

D.

does notmeet the required objective.

Question 10

Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ ___ __ __________ __ .

Options:

Question 11

Fill in the blank. To verify the SecureXL status, you would enter command _____________ .

Options:

Question 12

You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN mean?

Options:

A.

The cluster link is down.

B.

The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.

C.

Thephysical interface is down.

D.

CCP pakets couldn't be sent to or didn't arrive from neighbor member.

Question 13

To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

Options:

A.

Source

B.

Track

C.

User

D.

Action

Question 14

When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?

Options:

A.

As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.

B.

When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.

C.

When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.

D.

When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.

Question 15

Type the command and syntax you would use to verify that your Check Point cluster is functioning correctly.

Options:

Question 16

How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

Options:

A.

Change thegateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.

B.

No action is necessary. This access is available by default.

C.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on all interfaces.

D.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for an external interface.

Question 17

What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment?

Options:

A.

pdp track=1

B.

pdp tracker on

C.

pdp logging on

D.

pdp log=1

Question 18

Fill in the blank with a numeric value. The default port number for Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) connections with the LDAP Serveris

Options:

Question 19

MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R80. Which migration tool is recommended?

Options:

A.

Download Migration Tool R80 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.

B.

Use already installed Migration Tool.

C.

Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO

D.

Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R80 forSplat/Linux from CheckPoint website

Question 20

You have selected the event Port Scanfrom Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.

B.

You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.

C.

Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.

D.

Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.

Question 21

How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server? Run cpconfig and select:

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint.

B.

the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint.

C.

the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

D.

the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

Question 22

Match the ClusterXL modes with their configurations.

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

B.

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5

C.

A-3, B-5, C-1, D-4

D.

A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1

Question 23

MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?

Options:

A.

No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

B.

No. If SmartCenter is already under stress,the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.

C.

No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.

D.

Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

Question 24

How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server?

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

Run cpconfig, select the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

B.

Runcpconfig, select the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint

C.

Run cpconfig, select the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint

D.

Run sysconfig, select the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

Question 25

Select the command set best used to verify proper failover function of a new ClusterXL configuration.

Options:

A.

reboot

B.

cphaprob -d failDevice -s problem -t 0 register / cphaprob -d failDeviceunregister

C.

clusterXL_admin down / clusterXL_admin up

D.

cpstop/cpstart

Question 26

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

Options:

A.

1 – 254

B.

1 – 255

C.

0 –254

D.

0 – 255

Question 27

The WebUIoffers several methods for downloading hotfixes via CPUSE except:

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Force override

C.

Manually

D.

Scheduled

Question 28

A Threat Prevention profile is aset of configurations based on the following. (Choose all that apply.)

Options:

A.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings

B.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings

C.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings

D.

Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings

Question 29

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Question 30

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores. How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question 31

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulation

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 32

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Question 33

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

Question 34

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all of the following except?

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions.

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks.

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution.

Question 35

When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The state of connections using resources is maintained in aSecurity Server, so their connections cannot be synchronized.

B.

Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.

C.

In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization.

D.

Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails.

Question 36

True or False: SecureXL improves non-ecnrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic

throughput.

Options:

A.

True, because SecureXL does improve all traffic

B.

False, because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does

C.

True, because SecureXL does improve this traffic

D.

False, because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected

Question 37

Which file is not in the $FWDIR directory collected by the CPInfo utility from the server?

Options:

A.

fwauthd.conf

B.

asm.C

C.

classes.C

D.

cpd.elg

Question 38

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 39

In a Client to Server scenario, which represents that the packet has already been checked against the tables and the Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Big I

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

Question 40

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

Question 41

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int activate _drop_ templates

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fwaccel stats

D.

fwctl templates –d

Question 42

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings>Blades>HTTPS Inspection>Configure In SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade>Advanced>Https Inspection>Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings>Blades>HTTPS Inspection>Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade>Https Inspection>Policy

Question 43

What is true of the API server on R80.10?

Options:

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with16GB of RAM (or more)

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8 GB of RAM (more)

Question 44

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1;

C.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

Question 45

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

Question 46

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ___________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

Options:

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

Question 47

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Question 48

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

Question 49

Fill in the blank: The tool___________ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.

Options:

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

Question 50

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

Options:

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

Question 51

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

Options:

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentialsdo not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.

D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

Question 52

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimizemalware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants tomove around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer?

Options:

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

Question 53

What is the syntax foruninstalling a package using newpkg?

Options:

A.

-u

B.

-i

C.

-S

D.

newpkg CANNOT be used to uninstall a package

Question 54

What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot?

Options:

A.

upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is not available.

B.

upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where backup and snapshot will not.

C.

The commands backup and snapshot cantake a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will take a much shorter amount of time.

D.

upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup and snapshot will not.

Question 55

Users with Identity Awareness Agent installed on their machines login with __________, so that when the user logs into thedomain, that information is also used to meet Identity Awareness credential requests.

Options:

A.

Key-logging

B.

ICA Certificates

C.

SecureClient

D.

Single Sign-On

Question 56

Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?

Options:

A.

Dynamic Source Address Translation

B.

Hide Address Translation

C.

Port Address Translation

D.

Static Destination Address Translation

Question 57

How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?

Options:

A.

fw unload policy

B.

fw unloadlocal

C.

fw delete all.all@localhost

D.

fwm unloadlocal

Question 58

Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currentlyinstalled on a firewall module?

Options:

A.

cpstat fwd

B.

fw ver

C.

fw stat

D.

fw ctl pstat

Question 59

Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

Options:

A.

snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a GAiA Security Gateway.

B.

snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.

C.

snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.

D.

A Gateway snapshotincludes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.

Question 60

Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R80?

Options:

A.

External-user group

B.

LDAPgroup

C.

A group with a generic user

D.

All Users

Question 61

Your company is running Security Management Server R80 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from CheckPoint 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?

Options:

A.

Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator

B.

Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig

C.

Using the Web console on GAiA under Product configuration, select Administrators

D.

Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators

Question 62

The Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). What is nota recommended usage of this method?

Options:

A.

When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial

B.

Leveraging identity for Data Center protection

C.

Protecting highly sensitive servers

D.

Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guestusers)

Question 63

Which of the following is NOTdefined by an Access Role object?

Options:

A.

Source Network

B.

Source Machine

C.

Source User

D.

Source Server

Question 64

You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.)

When you run fw monitor on the R80 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

Options:

A.

o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine

B.

I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

C.

O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine

D.

i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine

Question 65

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

Options:

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

D.

If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.

Question 66

Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specificFirewall. How do you configure this?

Options:

A.

Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannotinstall a policy on any Firewall not listed here.

B.

Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.

C.

In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.

D.

Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.

Question 67

You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some ofthem use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.

B.

The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.

C.

The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priorityover the NAT on a network or an address range.

D.

The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.

Question 68

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1)Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner’s access?

Options:

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Question 69

Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

Options:

A.

This is an example of Hide NAT.

B.

There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.

C.

This is an exampleof Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.

D.

This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Question 70

How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?

Options:

A.

clish-c show routing active enable

B.

cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

C.

echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

D.

ipsofwd list

Question 71

An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.

Options:

A.

client side NAT

B.

source NAT

C.

destination NAT

D.

None of these

Question 72

Match the followingcommands to their correct function.

Each command has one function only listed.

Options:

A.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B.

C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4

C.

C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5

D.

C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2

Question 73

Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?

Options:

A.

$CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib

B.

$FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib

C.

It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

D.

There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

Question 74

How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R80 Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard.

B.

Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out.

C.

By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap.

D.

By installing a Security Policy.

Question 75

Assume you are a Security Administrator for ABCTech. You have allowed authenticated access to users from Mkting_net to Finance_net. But in the user’s properties, connections are only permitted within Mkting_net. What is the BEST way to resolve this conflict?

Options:

A.

Select Ignore Database in the Action Properties window.

B.

Permit access to Finance_net.

C.

Select Intersect with user database in the Action Properties window.

D.

SelectIntersect with user database or Ignore Database in the Action Properties window.

Demo: 75 questions
Total 502 questions