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Checkpoint 156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Exam Practice Test

Demo: 187 questions
Total 628 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

Question 2

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

Options:

A.

enable DLP and select.exe and .bat file type

B.

enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy

C.

create FW rule for particular protocol

D.

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe.bat

Question 3

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 4

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

Options:

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 6

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

Question 7

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

Question 8

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

Question 9

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

Question 10

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

Options:

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Question 11

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Question 12

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

Question 13

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 14

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 15

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Question 16

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

Question 17

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

Question 18

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

Options:

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

Question 19

As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

Options:

A.

SFWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

Question 20

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

Options:

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

Question 21

Which directory below contains log files?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

Question 22

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Question 23

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Question 24

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 25

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Question 26

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

Question 27

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

Question 28

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

Question 29

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 30

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

Options:

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

Question 31

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Question 32

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

Question 33

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

Question 34

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Question 35

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

Options:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

Question 36

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Question 37

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

Question 38

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

Question 39

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

Question 40

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Question 41

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

Question 42

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Question 43

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

Question 44

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

Question 45

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Question 46

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

Question 47

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Question 48

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 49

On what port does the CPM process run?

Options:

A.

TCP 857

B.

TCP 18192

C.

TCP 900

D.

TCP 19009

Question 50

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

Question 51

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

Question 52

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

Question 54

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 55

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Question 56

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

Options:

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

Question 57

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Question 58

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Question 59

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 60

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Question 61

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Question 62

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

Options:

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

Question 63

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

Question 64

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

Question 65

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

Question 66

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Question 67

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

Question 68

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

Question 69

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 70

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

Question 71

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

Options:

A.

TXT, XML and CSV

B.

PDF and TXT

C.

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.

PDF and HTML

Question 72

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

Options:

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

Question 73

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

Options:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

Question 74

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

Options:

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

Question 75

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

Options:

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

Question 76

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Question 77

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

Question 78

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

Question 79

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

Question 80

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 81

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

Question 82

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

Question 83

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 84

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 85

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.

Options:

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.20

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

Question 86

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

Options:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

Question 87

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

Question 88

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

Question 89

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18192

C.

18194

D.

18190

Question 90

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

Question 91

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

Question 92

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 93

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

Question 94

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 95

You plan to automate creating new objects using new R81 Management API. You decide to use GAIA CLI for this task.

What is the first step to run management API commands on GAIA’s shell?

Options:

A.

mgmt_admin@teabag > id.txt

B.

mgmt_login

C.

login user admin password teabag

D.

mgmt_cli login user “admin” password “teabag” > id.txt

Question 96

Which one of the following is NOT a configurable Compliance Regulation?

Options:

A.

GLBA

B.

CJIS

C.

SOCI

D.

NCIPA

Question 97

Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), makes sure that remote access client computers are configured in accordance with the enterprise Security Policy. Bob was asked by Alice to implement a specific SCV configuration but therefore Bob needs to edit and configure a specific Check Point file. Which location file and directory is true?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/client.scv

B.

$CPDIR/conf/local.scv

C.

$CPDIR/conf/client.svc

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.scv

Question 98

By default how often updates are checked when the CPUSE Software Updates Policy is set to Automatic?

Options:

A.

Six times per day

B.

Seven times per day

C.

Every two hours

D.

Every three hours

Question 99

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

Destination port

B.

Data type

C.

File attributes

D.

Application

Question 100

The log server sends what to the Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

Authentication requests

B.

CPMI dbsync

C.

Logs

D.

Event Policy

Question 101

What is false regarding a Management HA environment?

Options:

A.

Only one Management Server should be active, while any others be in standby mode

B.

It is not necessary to establish SIC between the primary and secondary management server, since the latter gets the exact same copy of the management database from the prior.

C.

SmartConsole can connect to any management server in Readonly mode.

D.

Synchronization will occur automatically with each Publish event if the Standby servers are available.

Question 102

Fill in the blank: A ________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

Options:

A.

Clientless remote access

B.

Clientless direct access

C.

Client-based remote access

D.

Direct access

Question 103

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Question 104

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

Add rba user roles

B.

Add rba user

C.

Add user roles

D.

Add user

Question 105

How can you see historical data with cpview?

Options:

A.

cpview -f

B.

cpview -e

C.

cpview -t

D.

cpview -d

Question 106

According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

Question 107

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

Question 108

IF the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a rule definition from within a security policy (not including the clean up rule), what message is sent back through the kernel?

Options:

A.

Nothing

B.

TCP FIN

C.

TCP RST

D.

ICMP unreachable

Question 109

Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components?

Options:

A.

Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

B.

Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client

C.

Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client

D.

Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

Question 110

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Options:

A.

Source Address

B.

Destination Address

C.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

D.

Source Port

Question 111

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 112

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

Options:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

Question 113

What is required for a site-to-site VPN tunnel that does not use certificates?

Options:

A.

Pre-Shared Secret

B.

RSA Token

C.

Unique Passwords

D.

SecurelD

Question 114

What command is used to manually failover a cluster during a zero-downtime upgrade?

Options:

A.

set cluster member down

B.

cpstop

C.

clusterXL_admin down

D.

set clusterXL down

Question 115

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

Options:

A.

The corresponding feature is new to R81.20 and is called "Management Data Plane Separation"

B.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Dispatching"

C.

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

D.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Split"

Question 116

Alice knows about the Check Point Management HA installation from Bob and needs to know which Check Point Security Management Server is currently capable of issuing and managing certificate. Alice uses the Check Point command "cpconfig'' to run the Check Point Security Management Server configuration tool on both Check Point Management HA instances "Primary & Secondary" Which configuration option does she need to look for:

Options:

A.

Certificate's Fingerprint

B.

Random Pool

C.

CA Authority

D.

Certificate Authority

Question 117

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

Options:

A.

TDP

B.

CCP

C.

HTTP

D.

UDP

Question 118

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R81? As with all questions, select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Question 119

CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled: (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 120

When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?

Options:

A.

Toni? AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

B.

To** AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

C.

Ton* AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.75

D.

"Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

Question 121

After verifying that API Server is not running, how can you start the API Server?

Options:

A.

Run command "set api start" in CLISH mode

B.

Run command "mgmt__cli set api start" in Expert mode

C.

Run command "mgmt api start" in CLISH mode

D.

Run command "api start" in Expert mode

Question 122

Which is the lowest gateway version supported by R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

R77.30

B.

R80.20

C.

R77

D.

R65

Question 123

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 124

What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

Options:

A.

SIC activation key requires a reset

B.

Administrator input the wrong SIC key

C.

The management can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication

D.

There is no connection between the Security Gateway and Security Management Server

Question 125

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Options:

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded.

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

Question 126

Bob is asked by Alice to disable the SecureXL mechanism temporary tor further diagnostic by their Check Point partner. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

fwaccel suspend

B.

fwaccel standby

C.

fwaccel off

D.

fwaccel templates

Question 127

Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Options:

A.

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

B.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Question 128

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

B.

Shared User Certificates

C.

Shared Secret Passwords

D.

Unique Passwords

Question 129

In R81.20 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?

  • Configure the Security Gateway to distribute logs between multiple active Log Servers to support a better rate of Logs and Log Servers redundancy

  • In case of a Management High Availability the management server stores the logs dynamically on the member with the most available disk space in /var/log

  • Synchronize the log between the primary and secondary management server in case of a Management High Availability

Options:

A.

To save disk space in case of a firewall cluster local logs are distributed between the cluster members.

Question 130

By default, the R81 web API uses which content-type in its response?

Options:

A.

Java Script

B.

XML

C.

Text

D.

JSON

Question 131

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 132

What API command below creates a new host object with the name "My Host" and IP address of "192 168 0 10"?

Options:

A.

set host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10"

B.

new host name "My Host" ip-address "192 168.0.10"

C.

create host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168 0.10"

D.

mgmt.cli -m add host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0 10"

Question 133

SmartEvent uses it's event policy to identify events. How can this be customized?

Options:

A.

By modifying the firewall rulebase

B.

By creating event candidates

C.

By matching logs against exclusions

D.

By matching logs against event rules

Question 134

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identities connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Options:

A.

Source Port

B.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

C.

Source Address

D.

Destination Address

Question 135

What are not possible commands to acquire the lock in order to make changes in Clish or Web GUI?

Options:

A.

set config-lock on override

B.

Click the Lock icon in the WebUI

C.

"set rbac rw = 1''

D.

lock database override

Question 136

Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R81.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R81.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly. What should he do first?

Options:

A.

Aaron should check API Server status with "fwm api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "fwm api start".

B.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpapi status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpapi start"

C.

Aaron should check API Server status with "api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "api start"

D.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpm api status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpi api start".

Question 137

What a valid SecureXL paths in R81.20?

Options:

A.

F2F (Slow path). Templated Path. PQX and F2V

B.

F2F (Slow path). PXL, QXL and F2V

C.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, PQX and F2V

D.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, Medium Path and F2V

Question 138

After finishing installation admin John likes to use top command in expert mode. John has to set the expert-password and was able to use top command. A week later John has to use the top command again, He detected that the expert password is no longer valid. What is the most probable reason for this behavior?

Options:

A.

“write memory” was not issued on clish

B.

changes are only possible via SmartConsole

C.

“save config” was not issued in expert mode

D.

“save config” was not issued on clish

Question 139

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

Options:

A.

API key

B.

session ID token

C.

content-type

D.

Request payload

Question 140

Alice wants to upgrade the current security management machine from R80.40 to R81.20 and she wants to check the Deployment Agent status over the GAIA CLISH. Which of the following GAIACLISH command is true?

Options:

A.

show agent status

B.

show uninstaller status

C.

show installer packages

D.

show installer status

Question 141

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

Question 142

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

Options:

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

Question 143

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 144

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

Question 145

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

Question 146

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Question 147

Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

Question 148

Which features are only supported with R81.20 Gateways but not R77.x?

Options:

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Question 149

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

Options:

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

Question 150

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

Question 151

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Question 152

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 153

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

Question 154

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

Question 155

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

Question 156

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

Question 157

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 158

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Question 159

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

Question 160

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 161

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Question 162

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

Question 163

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

Question 164

What is true about VRRP implementations?

Options:

A.

VRRP membership is enabled in cpconfig

B.

VRRP can be used together with ClusterXL, but with degraded performance

C.

You cannot have a standalone deployment

D.

You cannot have different VRIDs in the same physical network

Question 165

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

Question 166

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

Question 167

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

Question 168

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Options:

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

Question 169

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores.

Question 170

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

Options:

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

Question 171

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 172

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

Question 173

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Question 174

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

Question 175

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

Question 176

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

Question 177

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

Question 178

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 179

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

Question 180

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

Question 181

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Question 182

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network objects that restricts all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Question 183

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Question 184

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

Question 185

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

Question 186

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Question 187

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

Demo: 187 questions
Total 628 questions