Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?
Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?
You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?
Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?
The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?
Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?
Which one of the following is TRUE?
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?
Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?
The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal
Communication (SIC)?
John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?
Which command shows the installed licenses?
Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
How would you determine the software version from the CLI?
A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?
The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.
Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?
True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?
In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)
Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?
What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?
Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.
How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?
To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.
Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.
What is the possible explanation for this?
In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.
Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.
Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?
Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various
Which of the following is a valid deployment option?
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?
Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway
Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client
What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?
Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?
Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?
View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?
Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?
Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?
Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.
What are the three types of UserCheck messages?
After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?
What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?
What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?
When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?
Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?
What is the default shell for the command line interface?
Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?
Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?
Route-based— The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.
What are the two elements of address translation rules?
Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?
Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?
What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?
Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?
There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?
Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?
A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?
Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?
An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?
Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
How do you manage Gaia?
Where can alerts be viewed?
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.
Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?
Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?
What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?
R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?
When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?
What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?
True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway
Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?
Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?
Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.
When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?
In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?
When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?
Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.
Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?
Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?
Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?
Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?
What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?
In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?
Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?
Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
Examine the sample Rule Base.
What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?
The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?
Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?
Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.
Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?
Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.
After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?