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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 123 questions
Total 411 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____

Options:

A.

GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)

B.

Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell

C.

Command line interface; GAiA Portal

D.

Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

Question 4

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

Options:

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

Question 5

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

Question 6

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

Question 7

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Question 8

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Question 9

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

Options:

A.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

B.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

Question 10

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

Question 12

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

Question 14

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Question 15

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 16

Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Save changes

C.

Install policy

D.

Activate policy

Question 17

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

Options:

A.

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

B.

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

Question 18

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Question 19

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

Question 20

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 21

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

Question 22

How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw monitor

D.

cpinfo

Question 23

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot protection

B.

Anti-Malware protection

C.

Policy-based routing

D.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

Question 24

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 25

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

Question 26

True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

Question 27

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

Options:

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

Question 28

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

Question 29

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Malware

D.

Content Awareness

Question 30

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 31

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Options:

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Question 32

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

Options:

A.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

Captive Portal

Question 33

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Question 34

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.

The Gaia operating system only.

Question 35

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Question 36

Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

What is the possible explanation for this?

Options:

A.

DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.

B.

Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

C.

DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.

D.

This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

Question 37

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Hide; source

B.

Static; source

C.

Simple; source

D.

Hide; destination

Question 38

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

Question 39

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

Question 40

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Question 41

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Question 42

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

Options:

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

Question 43

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

Options:

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

Question 44

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Question 45

Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Options:

A.

Antivirus

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

NAT

D.

Application Control

Question 47

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

Question 48

What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

Options:

A.

RFC 1939

B.

RFC 1950

C.

RFC 1918

D.

RFC 793

Question 49

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Next-Generation Firewall

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 50

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

Question 51

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartUpdate

Question 52

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

Options:

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

Question 53

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

Options:

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Question 54

Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Accounting

C.

Logs

D.

Advanced

Question 55

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Options:

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

Question 56

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

Question 57

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

Question 58

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

Question 59

Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

Options:

A.

Main

B.

Authentication

C.

Quick

D.

High Alert

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 61

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Options:

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

Question 62

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Question 63

When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Options:

A.

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

B.

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

C.

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

D.

R81.X does not support Layers.

Question 64

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Question 65

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

Question 66

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Question 67

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

Question 68

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

    Route-based— The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

Options:

A.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

B.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

C.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

Question 69

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Question 70

Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Options:

A.

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

B.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Question 71

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

Question 72

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Options:

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

Question 73

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

Question 74

There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?

Options:

A.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

B.

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NAT.

D.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

Question 75

Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Options:

A.

Quick Mode Complete

B.

Aggressive Mode Complete

C.

Main Mode Complete

D.

IKE Mode Complete

Question 76

A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Options:

A.

Allow security audits.

B.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

C.

Monitor sequence activity.

D.

Block suspicious activity.

Question 77

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 78

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

Question 79

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 80

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Options:

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

Question 81

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Question 82

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

Question 83

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

Question 84

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Question 85

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Question 86

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 87

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

Options:

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Question 88

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

Question 89

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Question 90

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

Question 91

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Question 92

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Question 93

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

Question 94

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 95

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Question 96

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Question 97

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

Options:

A.

Custom

B.

Terminal

C.

Full

D.

Light

Question 98

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

Options:

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

Question 99

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Options:

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

Question 100

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Options:

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

Question 101

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Question 102

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 103

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

Question 104

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 105

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

C.

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

D.

RADIUS and Account Logon

Question 106

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Options:

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Question 107

Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartLicense

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

Deployment Agent

Question 108

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 109

What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

Options:

A.

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

B.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

C.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

D.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

Question 110

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 111

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Question 112

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 113

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Question 114

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 115

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Question 116

Examine the sample Rule Base.

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

No errors or Warnings

B.

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

C.

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

D.

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

Question 117

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

Question 118

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 119

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

Question 120

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

Options:

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

Question 121

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

Radius

C.

DynamicID

D.

TACACS

Question 122

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Question 123

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Options:

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

Demo: 123 questions
Total 411 questions