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CFA Institute ESG-Investing Certificate in ESG Investing Exam Practice Test

Demo: 140 questions
Total 468 questions

Certificate in ESG Investing Questions and Answers

Question 1

When assessing credit and ESG ratings, which of the following statements is most accurate?

Options:

A.

The correlation between country ESG risk and credit ratings is high

B.

The correlation between ESG ratings among rating providers is high

C.

The correlation between credit ratings among credit rating agencies (CRAs) is low

Question 2

Which of the following is most likely a secondary source of ESG information?

Options:

A.

Annual reports

B.

ESG rating reports

C.

Corporate sustainability reports

Question 3

In Australia, a managing director of a company is the:

Options:

A.

executive chair.

B.

only executive director.

C.

former CEO of the company.

Question 4

Compared to other ESG strategies, fully integrated ESG strategies tend to feature:

Options:

A.

less concentrated positions.

B.

similarly concentrated positions.

C.

more concentrated positions.

Question 5

Which of the following is an advantage of using ESG index-based strategies?

Options:

A.

Slightly lower fee structures compared to other index-based strategies

B.

Lower costs compared to discretionary, actively managed ESG strategies

C.

More focused stewardship activities with companies compared to actively managed ESG strategies

Question 6

A small company based in Sweden operates in an industry that has good sustainability ratings. The company has a low ESG rating that an analyst believes to be biased. The bias would most likely result from the company's:

Options:

A.

industry.

B.

company size.

C.

geographical base of operations.

Question 7

Over the last several years a company has traded at an average price-to-earnings ratio (P/E) of 12x, compared to a peer group range of 11x to 13x. If the company implements a new risk management framework to better manage material ESG risks relative to its peers, it would most likely justify a P/E ratio of:

Options:

A.

11x

B.

12x

C.

13x

Question 8

A challenge to ESG integration at the asset allocation level when using mean-variance optimization is that it:

Options:

A.

is highly sensitive to baseline assumptions

B.

requires specialist knowledge to make informed judgments about future risk

C.

could introduce an additional source of estimation errors due to the need for dynamic rebalancing

Question 9

Which of the following social factor scenarios is most likely to affect revenue forecasting?

Options:

A.

Consumer boycotts related to controversial sourcing

B.

Fines related to occupational health and safety failures

C.

High employee turnover related to poor human capital management

Question 10

Which of the following UK Stewardship Code principles is not addressed in the European Fund and Asset Management Association (EFAMA) Code? The principle that institutional investors should:

Options:

A.

monitor their investee companies

B.

report periodically on their stewardship and voting activities

C.

have a robust policy on managing conflicts of interest in relation to stewardship

Question 11

According to Mercer Consulting, which of the following asset classes has the highest availability of sustainability-themed strategies compared to its asset-class universe?

Options:

A.

Real estate

B.

Private debt

C.

Infrastructure

Question 12

Which of the following ESG integration techniques is an example of policy engagement? An investor:

Options:

A.

Embedding ESG into their strategic asset allocation program

B.

Responding to a regulator’s public consultation on ESG issues

C.

Voting on resolutions at an investee company's annual general meeting

Question 13

Interest by retail investors in responsible investing has:

Options:

A.

been declining over time

B.

remained stable over time

C.

been growing over time

Question 14

The management gap best describes a risk that:

Options:

A.

cannot be managed.

B.

part of a credit portfolio’s positions are unrated.

C.

can be managed, but is not yet being addressed.

Question 15

The LEAP assessment framework developed by the Taskforce on Nature-Related Financial Disclosure (TNFD) stands for:

Options:

A.

learn, engage, adapt, protect.

B.

locate, evaluate, assess, prepare.

C.

listen, estimate, advocate, preserve.

Question 16

Which of the following ESG investing approaches aims to drive positive change in the way investee companies are governed and managed?

Options:

A.

Impact investing

B.

Active ownership

C.

Positive alignment

Question 17

Under the "shades of green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), a bond that funds transition activities that do not lock in emissions is considered:

Options:

A.

yellow.

B.

light green.

C.

medium green.

Question 18

The Cadbury Committee was created because of perceived problems in:

Options:

A.

Employment rights

B.

Climate change and transition risks

C.

Accounting and corporate governance

Question 19

In the ESG rating process, an assessment of risk, policies, and preparedness is best categorized as part of a(n):

Options:

A.

operational assessment.

B.

fundamental assessment.

C.

disclosure-based assessment.

Question 20

Excluding tobacco from the investment universe is an example of which of the following ESG screening approaches?

Options:

A.

Universal exclusion

B.

Idiosyncratic exclusion

C.

Conduct-related exclusion

Question 21

Determining which ESG issues are material:

Options:

A.

involves judgment.

B.

excludes impacts on short-term financial performance.

C.

is a process that is independent of a company’s industry and business model.

Question 22

Working conditions on a tree plantation are most likely an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

social issue

B.

governance issue

C.

environmental issue

Question 23

The financial crisis of 2008 led to which of the following legislative changes?

Options:

A.

The Cadbury Code

B.

The Dodd-Frank Act

C.

The Greenbury Report

Question 24

A disadvantage of the Global Real Estate Sustainability Benchmark (GRESB) framework is that it:

Options:

A.

does not provide peer group comparison.

B.

does not provide environmental impact reduction targets.

C.

is easily sidestepped by majority owners who control how it is applied.

Question 25

A meat-processing company does not sell its pork products in predominantly Muslim countries. Investing in the company on this basis would be considered an example of:

Options:

A.

faith-based investing.

B.

norms-based exclusion.

C.

considering religion as a social factor.

Question 26

An unfavorable corporate governance assessment would most likely be incorporated in valuation through reduced:

Options:

A.

discount rates.

B.

risk premia in the cost of capital.

C.

levels of confidence in the valuation range.

Question 27

Which of the following countries have a joint audit requirement that all public interest entities must engage at least two independent accounting firms to perform an annual audit?

Options:

A.

France

B.

Germany

C.

United Kingdom

Question 28

When screening individual companies, a practice of avoiding the worst ESG performers best defines:

Options:

A.

positive screening

B.

negative screening

C.

norms-based screening

Question 29

Investors in a natural gas power plant identified a material risk that clients will switch to lower greenhouse gas (GHG) energy sources in the future. This risk is best incorporated in the financial modeling of:

Options:

A.

revenues.

B.

provisions.

C.

operating expenditures.

Question 30

Investment in fossil fuels is permitted under:

Options:

A.

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks only

B.

The EU Climate Transition Benchmarks only

C.

Both the EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks and the EU Climate Transition Benchmarks

Question 31

In contrast to engagement dialogues, monitoring dialogues most likely involve:

Options:

A.

a two-way sharing of perspectives.

B.

discussions intended to understand the company, its stakeholders and performance.

C.

conversations between investors and any level of the investee entity including non-executive directors.

Question 32

According to the Brunel Asset Management Accord, which of the following is least likely a cause for concern when evaluating an asset manager against an ESG investment mandate?

Options:

A.

Change in investment style

B.

Loss of key personnel in the organization

C.

Short term underperformance compared to benchmark

Question 33

The challenge of ESG integration for an investor is most likely attributable to:

Options:

A.

a lack of third-party ESG data providers.

B.

ESG disclosure mandates by stock exchanges.

C.

the vast range of possible ESG data and the conflicting demands among investors and other stakeholders.

Question 34

In ESG integration, which of the following best describes a data-informed analytical opinion designed to support investment decision-making?

Options:

A.

ESG screening

B.

Integrated research

C.

Voting and governance advice

Question 35

With respect to the current state of ESG disclosure globally, issuer reporting frameworks for ESG information are:

Options:

A.

mandatory

B.

fragmented

C.

harmonized

Question 36

Engagement is best described as a dialogue:

Options:

A.

To inform incremental buy/hold/sell decisions

B.

With a specific and targeted objective to achieve change

C.

To understand a company’s stakeholders and its performance

Question 37

Scores used to construct ESG index benchmarks can be

Options:

A.

data based, but not rating based

B.

rating based, but not data based.

C.

both data based and rating based

Question 38

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks and EU Climate Transition Benchmarks both:

Options:

A.

prohibit investments in fossil fuels.

B.

impose green-to-brown ratios to restrict “brown" investments.

C.

use a relative approach by comparing a company’s performance to its sector average.

Question 39

In governance analysis, a threshold assessment best describes a minimum:

Options:

A.

criterion before making an investment.

B.

level of confidence about future earnings.

C.

level of stewardship dialogue with the company.

Question 40

A company’s emission reduction commitments are best evaluated using:

Options:

A.

Scope 3 emissions.

B.

science-based targets.

C.

financial modelling of material environmental factors.

Question 41

Globalization has led to a reduction in:

Options:

A.

regulation

B.

market efficiency

C.

social structural inequality

Question 42

The World Bank's World Governance Indicators dataset includes rankings on:

Options:

A.

rule of law.

B.

credit rating.

C.

the government debt to GDP ratio.

Question 43

Applying constraints in ESG portfolio optimization:

Options:

A.

Can be applied through exclusionary screening

B.

Is currently confined to carbon data due to data limitations

C.

Requires defining an upper and lower bound for a given variable

Question 44

Fund labelers are most likely classified as:

Options:

A.

regulators

B.

fund promoters.

C.

financial advisers

Question 45

Will including additional ESG constraints in a portfolio optimization model most likely affect tracking error?

Options:

A.

No

B.

Yes, it will reduce tracking error

C.

Yes, it will increase tracking error

Question 46

When searching for an asset manager with an ESG approach, in the request for proposal (RFP) an institutional asset owner would most appropriately ask:

Options:

A.

which broad market index the asset manager tracks.

B.

detailed questions on specific portfolio holdings of the asset manager.

C.

if the asset manager aims for positive, measurable ESG outcomes beyond financial returns.

Question 47

Which of the following most likely outlines an investment firm's ESG integration approach?

Options:

A.

ESG policy

B.

Statement of Investment Principles

C.

Corporate social responsibility report

Question 48

Analyzing a portfolio's social impact exposure is best achieved by first understanding material social topics at:

Options:

A.

the company and country levels, then the sector level

B.

the country and sector levels, then the company level

C.

the company and sector levels, then the country level

Question 49

Which of the following is most likely a characteristic of good corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Audit committees must be populated solely by independent non-executive directors

B.

The existing chair must lead the nominations committee in the search for the new chair

C.

Independent non-executive directors must form a majority of the remuneration committee

Question 50

Engagement teams with a history of governance-led engagement are most likely to be organized:

Options:

A.

by sector.

B.

by asset class.

C.

geographically.

Question 51

Which of the following governance initiatives was focused on increased oversight of banks?

Options:

A.

The Dodd-Frank Act

B.

The Greenbury Report

C.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Question 52

Considering the climate-related impacts on a company's financials and the impacts of a company on the climate best describes:

Options:

A.

double materiality.

B.

financial materiality.

C.

dynamic materiality.

Question 53

Which of the following best describes a challenge of ESG integration?

Options:

A.

The reliance solely on algorithms to forecast future ESG performance

B.

Overly detailed company-level ESG reporting that overwhelms investors

C.

Disagreements between investors and company management teams about materiality thresholds

Question 54

Jevon's paradox refers to a situation where improvements in efficiency are offset by increased:

Options:

A.

waste.

B.

consumption of the product.

C.

spending on sectors where emissions are harder to abate.

Question 55

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, how many of the nine planetary boundaries have already been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

None

B.

Some

C.

All

Question 56

According to the McKinsey framework which of the following elements of sustainable investing is allocated to the investment dimension of tools and processes?

Options:

A.

Proactive engagement

B.

Review of external managers

C.

Integration with investment teams

Question 57

Which of the following is the most important type of diversity in a boardroom?

Options:

A.

Diversity of skill

B.

Diversity of gender

C.

Diversity of thought

Question 58

According to the United Nations Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI), modern fiduciary duty would require investment managers to:

Options:

A.

Support the stability and resilience of the financial system

B.

Incorporate their own sustainability preferences into decision-making

C.

Encourage high standards of ESG performance across the entire investment universe

Question 59

When considering material ESG factors in real estate, which of the following is classified as an environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Local job creation

B.

Community engagement

C.

Use of renewable energy

Question 60

EU regulators manage the independence of audits for public companies by:

Options:

A.

requiring companies to rotate auditors after a maximum of ten years.

B.

setting a monetary limit on advisory services provided to companies.

C.

preventing audit partners from joining audit and risk committees as non-executive directors.

Question 61

Which of the following engagement styles is most likely closely aligned with passive investments?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up engagement

B.

Issued-based engagement

C.

Company-focused engagement

Question 62

A company's Scope 2 emissions are:

Options:

A.

emissions from purchased energy.

B.

direct emissions from core operations.

C.

emissions produced by suppliers and customers.

Question 63

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of a 'just' transition?

Options:

A.

A region transitioning to solar power subsidizes businesses to install solar arrays

B.

A region transitioning to a smaller public sector workforce funds outplacement programs for displaced office workers

C.

A region transitioning away from iron ore mining helps displaced miners to work in the safe decommission of abandoned mines

Question 64

Exclusionary screening:

Options:

A.

reduces portfolio tracking error and active share.

B.

is the oldest and simplest approach within responsible investment.

C.

employs a given ESG rating methodology to identify companies with better ESG performance relative to its industry peers.

Question 65

For investments in wastewater treatment plants, a significant obstacle is:

Options:

A.

lack of demand.

B.

high capital intensity.

C.

availability of unskilled labor.

Question 66

Which of the following statements regarding optimization of portfolios for ESG criteria is most accurate?

Options:

A.

ESG integration may enhance the risk and return profile of portfolio optimization

B.

Optimization is limited to carbon data because of its absolute nature and more standardized reporting metrics

C.

ESG optimization via constraints is similar to exclusionary screening because it also applies a fixed decision on specific securities

Question 67

An analyst derives correlations to determine how ESG factors might impact financial performance over time and then weights those factors appropriately within the portfolio. This approach is best described as:

Options:

A.

Thematic

B.

Systematic

C.

Algorithmic

Question 68

According to a study of the Hermes UK Focus Fund, which of the following engagement objectives was most likely to be achieved through shareholder activism?

Options:

A.

Renumeration policy changes

B.

Improvements to investor relations

C.

Restructuring and financial policies

Question 69

Which of the following is most likely a direct impact of the tighter regulation of pollution on a company’s financial performance?

Options:

A.

Higher provisions only

B.

Lower financing costs only

C.

Both higher provisions and lower financing costs

Question 70

A social media company faces criticism from a consumer action group for selling user data to advertising clients. A potential lawsuit will have the greatest direct effect on the company’s:

Options:

A.

return on equity ratio.

B.

creditors turnover ratio.

C.

liabilities-to-assets ratio.

Question 71

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of a ‘just’ transition?

Options:

A.

A region transitioning to solar power subsidizes businesses to install solar arrays

B.

A region transitioning to a smaller public sector workforce funds outplacement programs for displaced office workers

C.

A region transitioning away from iron ore mining helps displaced miners to work in the safe decommission of abandoned mines

Question 72

Which of the following is an example of a just’ transition with regards to climate change?

Options:

A.

A company issues a first transition bond to finance a gas-fired power utility project

B.

A manufacturer designs products that are more reusable and recyclable to support the circular economy

C.

A government works with labor unions to develop a social package for displaced workers due to closure of coal mines

Question 73

Which of the following principles of the UK Stewardship Code could be considered controversial?

Options:

A.

Proxy voting

B.

Collective engagement

C.

Monitoring of investee companies

Question 74

Which of the following climate risks are systemic risks to the financial system?

Options:

A.

Policy and legal risks

B.

Technology and stability risks

C.

Physical and transitional risks

Question 75

With respect to the current state of ESG disclosure globally, issuer reporting frameworks for ESG information are

Options:

A.

mandatory

B.

fragmented.

C.

harmonized.

Question 76

The Sustamalytics database is most likely used for:

Options:

A.

manager ESG assessment

B.

company ESG assessment.

C.

creating an ESG benchmark

Question 77

Natural language processing (NLP) is employed as a tool in ESG investing to:

Options:

A.

backtest short time series of ESG data.

B.

quantify online text relating to ESG risk areas.

C.

interpret satellite imagery to assess deforestation.

Question 78

Which of the following statements regarding ESG considerations and sovereign debt is most accurate?

Options:

A.

There is little correlation between ESG risk and credit ratings

B.

ESG integration in sovereign debt is at similar levels to listed equities and corporate debt

C.

ESG ratings tend to be structurally lower for emerging countries relative to developed economies

Question 79

What type of provider of ESG-related products and services is CDP (formerly known as Carbon Disclosure Project)?

Options:

A.

nonprofit

B.

large for-profit

C.

boutique for-profit

Question 80

With respect to ESG integration in private equity, which of the following is most likely a challenge an investor may face?

Options:

A.

Lack of strategy and long-term orientation from private equity managers

B.

Lack of capacity within the investee company to fulfill ESG reporting requirements

C.

Reporting frameworks that do not account for the relative lack of transparency found in private markets relative to public markets

Question 81

A portfolio approach in which bottom-up analysis is complemented with consideration of ESG factors, resulting in a relatively concentrated portfolio, is best described as:

Options:

A.

Systematic

B.

Index-based

C.

Discretionary

Question 82

Corporate disclosures in line with the recommendations of the Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) are a regulatory requirement for companies in:

Options:

A.

the EU only

B.

the UK only

C.

both the EU and the UK

Question 83

Which of the following investor types most likely has the shortest investment time horizon?

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

General insurers

C.

Defined benefit pension schemes

Question 84

Which of the following is a minimum requirement for Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI) membership?

Options:

A.

Participation in a shareholder engagement platform

B.

The establishment of accountability mechanisms for responsible investment implementation

C.

Implementation of Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) recommendations

Question 85

Bonds that fund projects that provide access to essential services, infrastructure, and social programs to underserved people and communities are best described as:

Options:

A.

green bonds.

B.

social bonds.

C.

transition bonds.

Question 86

Compared to developed markets, ESG investing in emerging markets is most likely characterized by:

Options:

A.

less data and greater variability between countries and companies.

B.

easier portability of approaches and principles methods from developed markets.

C.

fewer opportunities for investors to engage with companies and improve ESG performance.

Question 87

Alignment of an investment manager's performance against a long-term ESG investor’s objectives is best achieved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking against the market

B.

Engaging in a monitoring dialogue frequently

C.

Early reporting of deviations from the expected investment process or style

Question 88

Companies may be excluded from the UK Modern Slavery Act on the basis of:

Options:

A.

size only

B.

sector only.

C.

both size and sector

Question 89

Scorecards for ESG analysis are most likely:

Options:

A.

applicable to public companies but not private companies.

B.

used when third-party research or scores are not available.

C.

inappropriate for country-level assessments of sovereign bonds.

Question 90

Compared to public companies, creating private company scorecards is challenging as:

Options:

A.

less information is available in the public domain

B.

rating agencies are more critical of private companies

C.

management is more unwilling to disclose commercially sensitive information

Question 91

Which of the following is most likely categorized as an external social factor?

Options:

A.

Human rights

B.

Product liability

C.

Working conditions

Question 92

According to the Taskforce on Nature-related Financial Disclosures (TNFD), the four realms of nature include

Options:

A.

land

B.

pollution.

C.

biodiversity

Question 93

According to the Principles for Responsible Investment, which of the following engagement dynamics creates value?

Options:

A.

Political dynamics only

B.

Learning dynamics only

C.

Both political dynamics and learning dynamics

Question 94

Which of the following best summarizes the studies on carbon risk?

Options:

A.

Companies with lower levels of CO2 emissions are associated with higher returns

B.

Companies with higher levels of CO2 emissions are associated with higher returns

C.

There is no conclusive evidence on the link between a company's level of CO2 emissions and returns

Question 95

Which of the following is responsible for ensuring the composition of a company's board is balanced and effective?

Options:

A.

Audit Committee

B.

Nominations Committee

C.

Remuneration Committee

Question 96

The concept of double-agency in society refers to the conflict of interest between

Options:

A.

corporate CEOs and shareholders

B.

money managers and asset owners.

C.

corporate CEOs and money managers

Question 97

When optimizing a portfolio for ESG factors, as constraint parameters are tightened, the deviation from an optimal portfolio most likely:

Options:

A.

decreases.

B.

is not affected.

C.

increases.

Question 98

A company's external auditor formally reports to the:

Options:

A.

audit committee.

B.

chair of the board of directors.

C.

shareholders at the annual general meeting.

Question 99

With respect to ESG engagement for a company that is a going concern, the interests of equity investors and debt investors are most likely.

Options:

A.

aligned

B.

opposed.

C.

independent

Question 100

Under the "shades of green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), a bond that funds transition activities that do not lock in emissions is considered:

Options:

A.

Yellow

B.

Light green

C.

Medium green

Question 101

According to the Brunel Asset Management Accord, which of the following is most likely a concern for the asset owner? A fund manager:

Options:

A.

having short-term investment underperformance

B.

taking lower risk compared to the investment mandate

C.

generating returns consistently above the industry average

Question 102

Which of the following social factors most likely impacts a company's external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Working conditions, health, and safety

B.

Employment standards and labor rights

C.

Product liability and consumer protection

Question 103

With respect to ESG integration, adjusting financial model inputs based on an evaluation of a company’s ESG risk factors is an example of a:

Options:

A.

hybrid approach

B.

qualitative approach.

C.

quantitative approach

Question 104

Which of the following subclasses is most likely to have the highest level of ESG integration using Mercer's ratings?

Options:

A.

Sovereign debt

B.

High-yield credit

C.

Investment-grade credit

Question 105

Applying ESG screens to quantitative strategies directs the portfolio on:

Options:

A.

an asset basis.

B.

a top-down basis.

C.

an individual issuer basis.

Question 106

Which of the following statements about corporate governance is most accurate? Companies with a more diverse board of directors are most likely associated with

Options:

A.

lower profitability

B.

lower stock return volatility.

C.

less investment in research and development.

Question 107

Which of the following statements about quantitative ESG analysis is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Quantitative ESG analysis is only based on third-party data

B.

The length of the timeseries for ESG data is shorter than for financial data

C.

Application programming interfaces (APIs) are used to bring structure to the ESG dataset

Question 108

Which of the following is an example of a bottom-up ESG engagement approach? An asset manager:

Options:

A.

joining the PRI Collaboration Platform

B.

sending out a letter to the CFOs of all investee companies

C.

initiating dialogue with an investee company's investor relations team

Question 109

Which of the following is an example of the internalization of negative externalities?

Options:

A.

A car manufacturer receiving subsidies for electric car production

B.

A farmer paying taxes based on the level of soil degradation on its farmland

C.

An electronics manufacturer retaining more employees after improving working conditions

Question 110

Which of the following is a challenge in ESG integration?

Options:

A.

ESG disclosures that lack comparability across companies

B.

Excessive company-level ESG reporting that overwhelms investors

C.

Standardized disclosures in audited financial statements that hinder differentiated analysis

Question 111

The rules that can be used to construct ESG exchange-traded funds (ETFs) include:

Options:

A.

Thematic investing, only

B.

Tilting weightings based on ESG scores, only

C.

Both thematic investing and tilting weightings based on ESG scores

Question 112

For developed markets, an increase in inequality between the richest and the poorest population of a country most likely results in:

Options:

A.

lower social mobility

B.

greater reliance on family structures

C.

higher economic growth in skill-based industries

Question 113

Regarding ESG issues, which of the following sets the tone for the investment value chain?

Options:

A.

Asset owners

B.

Asset managers

C.

Investment consultants

Question 114

For investors in corporate fixed-income securities, engagement is most likely to be effective if conducted:

Options:

A.

Before the security is issued

B.

Through the divestment process

C.

At the annual general meeting via voting

Question 115

When assessing the investment risk of a coal mining company, the concept of double materiality refers to the company reporting on matters of:

Options:

A.

current and future materiality

B.

people and planet materiality

C.

financial and impact materiality

Question 116

Natural language processing (NLP) is employed as a tool in ESG investing to:

Options:

A.

backtest short time series of ESG data

B.

quantify online text relating to ESG risk areas

C.

interpret satellite imagery to assess deforestation

Question 117

The investor initiative FAIRR focuses on screening out companies

Options:

A.

mining ancestral lands.

B.

using suppliers that do not pay a living wage.

C.

exhibiting poor antibiotic stewardship in animal farming

Question 118

Information provided by ESG rating agencies is most likely:

Options:

A.

relatively noisy.

B.

subject to "group think.”

C.

already reflected in stock prices.

Question 119

Supply chain sustainability management:

Options:

A.

considers practices within the main production factory only.

B.

looks at the broader production life cycle, including sourcing.

C.

is simple to understand given supply chains are distinct and independent.

Question 120

The Integrated Biodiversity Assessment Tool (IBAT) is best described as an interactive mapping tool allowing decision makers to:

Options:

A.

assess companies’ preparedness for biodiversity risk

B.

manage biodiversity and social risk in project finance

C.

identify biodiversity risks and opportunities within a project boundary

Question 121

Determining which ESG issues are material:

Options:

A.

Involves judgment

B.

Excludes impacts on short-term financial performance

C.

Is a process that is independent of a company's industry and business model

Question 122

Companies subject to the EU Taxonomy are required to:

Options:

A.

do no significant harm to any of the environmental objectives.

B.

contribute substantially to at least two of the environmental objectives.

C.

comply with the highest standards of social and governance safeguards.

Question 123

Under which perspective did the Freshfields Report argue that integrating ESG considerations was necessary in all jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Economic

B.

Fiduciary duty

C.

Impact and ethics

Question 124

Research on ESG integration in strategic asset allocation has tended to focus most on:

Options:

A.

environmental criteria.

B.

social criteria.

C.

governance criteria.

Question 125

A portfolio manager may need to adopt a more appropriate ESG benchmark rather than a broad market benchmark if the degree of exclusions results in:

Options:

A.

low active share and low tracking error

B.

low active share and high tracking error.

C.

high active share and high tracking error.

Question 126

Which of the following statements about stewardship codes is most accurate? Stewardship codes:

Options:

A.

apply only to public equity investments.

B.

have similar principles in most parts of the world.

C.

pursue social policy goals without making a clear link to value.

Question 127

The social factor most widely incorporated by institutional investors in their analysis is:

Options:

A.

executive pay.

B.

trade association.

C.

health and safety.

Question 128

Under which perspective did the Freshfields Report argue that integrating ESG considerations was necessary in all jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Economic

B.

Fiduciary duty

C.

Impact and ethics

Question 129

The role of auditors is to assess the financial reports prepared by management and to provide assurance that:

Options:

A.

the numbers are correct

B.

there is no fraud within the business.

C.

the reports fairly represent the performance and position of the business

Question 130

Compared with younger people, older people are more likely to have:

Options:

A.

lower accumulated savings and spend less on consumer goods

B.

higher accumulated savings and spend less on consumer goods.

C.

higher accumulated savings and spend more on consumer goods

Question 131

Which of the following has the long-term goal to keep the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C (3.6°F) above pre-industnal levels?

Options:

A.

The Kyoto Protocol

B.

The Paris Agreement

C.

The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change

Question 132

Which of the following ESG screening methodologies is most likely to result in a well-diversified portfolio? Screening on:

Options:

A.

a relative basis only

B.

an absolute basis only

C.

both a relative basis and an absolute basis

Question 133

Which of the following statements about materiality is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Double materiality excludes impacts of a company on ESG factors

B.

Financial materiality is an extension of the accounting concept of double materiality

C.

Dynamic materiality means that investors must constantly review what is financially material for a company

Question 134

Engagement is least appropriate for which of the following investment types?

Options:

A.

Private debt

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Sovereign debt

Question 135

What type of provider of ESG-related products and services is CDP (formerly known as Carbon Disclosure Project)?

Options:

A.

Nonprofit

B.

Large for-profit

C.

Boutique for-profit

Question 136

Under the disclosure guide for public equities published by the Pension and Lifetime Savings Association (PLSA), fund managers are expected to report on:

Options:

A.

ESG integration only

B.

stewardship activities only

C.

both ESG integration and stewardship activities

Question 137

In ESG integration, which of the following best describes a data-mformed analytical opinion designed to support investment decision-making?

Options:

A.

ESG screening

B.

Integrated research

C.

Voting and governance advice

Question 138

Which of the following statements regarding corporate governance is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Board appraisals are most effective when led by an internal facilitator.

B.

A board should be independent of the decisions of the previous boards.

C.

Gender is the most important type of diversity needed for a board to be successful.

Question 139

According to a study of the Hermes UK Focus Fund: which of the following engagement objectives was most likely to be achieved through shareholder activism?

Options:

A.

Renumeration policy changes

B.

Improvements to investor relations

C.

Restructuring and financial policies

Question 140

Which of the following actions is best categorized as an escalation of engagement?

Options:

A.

Arranging a meeting with the investor relations team

B.

Engaging management through an operational site visit

C.

Submitting resolutions and speaking at general meetings

Demo: 140 questions
Total 468 questions