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BCS ISEB-PM1 BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Exam Practice Test

Demo: 93 questions
Total 625 questions

BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Question 2

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-Location

Question 3

Collect Requirements is:

Options:

A.

Developing a plan from major stakeholders

B.

Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

C.

Planning project milestones

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the project scope

Question 4

Management reserves are normally defined as a % of the total budget. As a project progresses, the project manager wants the $ value of management reserve to _____, whereas the customer wants the management reserve to _____.

Options:

A.

Increase, increase.

B.

Increase, decrease.

C.

Remain the same, return to customer.

D.

Decrease, increase.

E.

Decrease, decrease.

Question 5

Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?

Options:

A.

Quality checklists

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Quality audits

D.

Process analysis

Question 6

Instead of celebrating the end of the project, the stakeholders are breathing a sigh of relief. None of them were confident the project would meet the end date.

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons this project had difficulty?

Options:

A.

Lack of a payback period

B.

Lack of milestones

C.

Lack of a communications management plan

D.

Lack of a staffing management plan

Question 7

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

Options:

A.

Project boundaries

B.

Project constraints

C.

Project assumptions

D.

Project objectives

Question 8

The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

Question 9

A project manager has increased project costs by US $100,000, but completed the project four weeks earlier than planned.

What activity is BEST described here?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Schedule compression

C.

Critical chain

D.

Adjusting leads and lags

Question 10

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B.

Marketplace conditions and company structure

C.

Commercial databases and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market place conditions

Question 11

A project manager believes that the best way to manage is to form a good, harmonious working relationship with the team, and high performance will follow. The project manager could be defined as a _____ manager.

Options:

A.

1,9

B.

9,1

C.

1,1

D.

9,9

E.

5,5

Question 12

Make payment to seller is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 13

Formal written communication is mandated for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Both 1) scope changes not part of the original project, and 2) taking exception to a specification.

B.

scope changes not part of the original project

C.

procurement of raw materials

D.

All of the other alternatives apply.

E.

taking exception to a specification

Question 14

What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Question 15

You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the grower's site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250.

What is the CPI of this project?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.80

C.

1.25

D.

1.5

Question 16

Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project management plan

C.

Project statement of work

D.

Project scope statement

Question 17

Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Performance Reporting

Question 18

A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate.

It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Integrated change control

C.

Monitoring and controlling

D.

Project closing

Question 19

What are the components of the "triple constraint"?

Options:

A.

Scope, time, requirements

B.

Resources, time, cost

C.

Scope, management, cost

D.

Scope, time, cost

Question 20

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question 21

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

Question 22

Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Define Scope and Define Activities

B.

Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Create WBS and Define Activities

D.

Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration

Question 23

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 24

Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

Options:

A.

Collaborating

B.

Issue log

C.

Leadership

D.

Motivation

Question 25

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control Chart

C.

Flowchart

D.

Histogram

Question 26

How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

Options:

A.

5

B.

8

C.

9

D.

12

Question 27

Risk event probability is defined as:

Options:

A.

the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event

B.

the fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event

C.

the number of times the risk event may occur

D.

Both 1) the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event and 2) the number of times the risk event may occur.

E.

the total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event.

Question 28

There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How many communication channels are there?

Options:

A.

21

B.

28

C.

36

D.

42

Question 29

Which is not one of the triple constraint of a project?

Options:

A.

Cost

B.

Time

C.

Resources

D.

Scope

Question 30

Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?

Options:

A.

Constrained optimization

B.

Comparative approach

C.

Benefit measurement

D.

Impact analysis

Question 31

In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price Plus Incentive

B.

Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract

D.

Cost Plus Percentage of Cost

E.

Cost Plus Fixed Price

Question 32

A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

Question 33

The methods and techniques for determining the economic costs, the environmental impact, the economic returns, and the probability for success are called:

Options:

A.

Bills of materials.

B.

Pert charts.

C.

Managerial reserves.

D.

None of the other alternatives apply

E.

Feasibility studies.

Question 34

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question 35

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?

BAC = $100,000

PV = $50,000

AC = $80,000

EV = $40,000

Options:

A.

1.00

B.

0.40

C.

0.50

D.

0.80

Question 36

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 37

You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves rewriting the Department of Revenue's income tax system. As project manager, you have taken all the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data. One of the key stakeholders is a huge movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this project. She's reviewing some report data that just happens to include confidential information regarding one of her favorite movie superstars.

What is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

Do nothing, because she has the proper level of access rights to the data and this information showed up unintentionally.

B.

Request that she immediately return the information, citing conflict of interest and violation of confidential company data.

C.

Request that she immediately return the information until you can confirm that she has the proper level of access rights to the data.

D.

Report her to the management team.

Question 38

Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of technical competence.

Options:

A.

Single voice to customers

B.

High information processing capability

C.

Ease of horizontal coordination

D.

Clearly defined authority

Question 39

Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Risk categorization

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Risk register categorization

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Question 40

Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management

B.

Monitoring and controlling

C.

Project governance

D.

Project management methodology

Question 41

Parametric estimates are based on variables such as:

Options:

A.

Project objectives and manpower allocations.

B.

Physical characteristics and historical data.

C.

Precise measurements and multiple inputs.

D.

The WBS and similar projects.

E.

Detailed planning and cost restraints.

Question 42

Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?

Options:

A.

Delphi technique

B.

Unanimity

C.

Observation

D.

Presentation technique

Question 43

What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Measure of design

C.

Statistical control

D.

Systematic analysis

Question 44

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Document the characteristics of the product.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Formally authorize the project.

Question 45

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

Question 46

What is an output of Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Work performance measurements

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Work performance information

Question 47

ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low.

Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk?

Options:

A.

Team members who have low morale

B.

Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project

C.

Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations

Question 48

Communication plays a major role in:

Options:

A.

Organizing

B.

Controlling

C.

All of the other alternatives apply

D.

Directing

E.

Planning

Question 49

Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:

Options:

A.

funding limit reconciliation

B.

scope baseline

C.

activity cost estimates.

D.

cost baseline.

Question 50

A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000.

What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

Options:

A.

Management Overhead

B.

Management Contingency Reserve

C.

Cost Variance

D.

Schedule Variance

Question 51

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project management plan

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Product analysis

Question 52

What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Assessed probability and impact

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Risk Identification

Question 53

If a project manager is using observation and conversation to help control the project, she must be involved in which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team

B.

Distribute Information

C.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

D.

Manage Project Team

Question 54

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Question 55

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

Question 56

Which of the following is CORRECT about quality improvements?

Options:

A.

They are a tool of Perform Quality Assurance and an output of Verify Scope.

B.

They require the preparation of change requests or the recommendation of corrective actions.

C.

They occur only through experience of the project manager, team, and sponsor.

D.

They are a product of cooperation between the customer and the project manager.

Question 57

Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 58

A project may be defined as ________.

Options:

A.

an integrated approach to managing projects

B.

a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities.

C.

a group of activities directed by a project manager over a life cycle

D.

All of the other alternatives apply.

E.

an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives

Question 59

Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Cause and effect diagrams

C.

Control charts

D.

Flowcharting

Question 60

Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 61

What information does the stakeholder register contain?

Options:

A.

Communication model

B.

Identification information

C.

Communication method

D.

Identification plan

Question 62

Co-location can help with:

Options:

A.

Bringing customers together.

B.

Building the team.

C.

Decreasing project rental costs.

D.

Decreasing project time.

Question 63

Which of the following is a Process Group?

Options:

A.

Scoping

B.

Budgeting

C.

Closing

D.

Quality

Question 64

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT a reason to measure variances from the baseline?

Options:

A.

To catch deviations early

B.

To allow early corrective action

C.

To determine if there are any wild fluctuations

D.

To create a project control system

Question 66

Which is the duration of the project?

Options:

A.

63

B.

65

C.

66

D.

70

Question 67

Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Withdrawing/Avoiding

B.

Forcing

C.

Collaborating

D.

Smoothing/Accommodating

Question 68

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

Options:

A.

To identify quality requirements of the project

B.

To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C.

To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D.

To ensure quality standards are used

Question 69

What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?

Options:

A.

$115

B.

$138

C.

$140

D.

$165

Question 70

Earned value measurement is an example of:

Options:

A.

Performance reporting.

B.

Planning control.

C.

Ishikawa diagrams.

D.

Integrating the project components into a whole.

Question 71

A project manager you are mentoring comes to you for help because he is about to face his first procurement audit. You might explain that he should NOT worry about such an audit because it:

Options:

A.

Identifies successes and failures that warrant transfer to other procurements.

B.

Makes sure the contract is being followed.

C.

Makes sure costs are in line with the project.

D.

Makes sure the seller is following the contract.

Question 72

What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

More work was completed than planned

B.

Less work was completed than planned

C.

Cost overrun for completed work has occurred

D.

Cost underrun for completed work has occurred

Question 73

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Scope Management

B.

Time Management

C.

Communications Management

D.

Quality Management

Question 74

A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40 percent complete and has used 60 percent of the available calendar time.

What is the FIRST thing you should do?

Options:

A.

Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the new date.

B.

Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule.

C.

Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management.

D.

Identify activities that required more time than planned.

Question 75

A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Request seller responses

C.

Select sellers

D.

Plan purchase and acquisition

Question 76

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Question 77

Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Decode

C.

Pull

D.

Duration

Question 78

What are the Scope Definition process tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Product analysis, alternatives identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis

B.

Alternatives identification, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment

C.

Product analysis, cost benefit analysis, alternatives identification, and expert judgment

D.

Cost benefit analysis, templates, and expert judgment

Question 79

How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Options:

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

Question 80

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

Options:

A.

Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B.

Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.

C.

Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.

D.

Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.

Question 81

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

Options:

A.

Analogous Estimating

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Optimistic Estimates

D.

Reserve Analysis

Question 82

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Question 83

During project executing, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager meets with all parties concerned to analyze the situation.

Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Project Control

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Plan Quality

Question 84

To complete performance index (TCPI) is represented by which of the following?

Options:

A.

BAC - EV/BAC - AC

B.

A measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress

C.

A measure of progress achieved compared to progress planned

D.

AC + (BAC - EV)

Question 85

A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:

Options:

A.

It only had six weeks of changes.

B.

It was completed within the baseline.

C.

There were so few changes.

D.

There was good communication control.

Question 86

What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?

Options:

A.

Under budget and ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget and behind schedule

C.

Over budget and ahead of schedule

D.

Under budget and behind schedule

Question 87

Which of the following will be required to perform simu-lation for schedule risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Activity list and activity attributes

B.

Schedule network diagram and duration estimates

C.

Schedule data and activity resource requirements

D.

Milestone list and resource breakdown structure

Question 88

Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:

Options:

A.

See how others have solved problems

B.

"Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"

C.

See what mistakes others have made

D.

All of the other alternatives apply

Question 89

The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities

B.

Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

C.

Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units

D.

Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed

Question 90

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Plan

B.

Project Schedule Network

C.

Project Management Software

D.

Project Scope Management Plan

Question 91

When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

Options:

A.

Clear role definition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Team member replacement

Question 92

An activity-on-node (AON) network diagram shows the following activities on two critical paths; Start, D, E, J, L, End and Start, D, E, G, I, L, End. Each activity is at least three days in duration, except for activity L, which is one day in duration.

If you are directed to reduce the project by one day, which activities are MOST likely to change?

Options:

A.

Activity L

B.

Activity E or activity J

C.

Activity G or activity I

D.

Activity D or activity E

Question 93

You are in the middle of a major new facility construction project. The structural steel is in place and the heating conduits are going into place when a senior manager informs you that he is worried that the project will not meet the quality standards.

What should you do in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assure senior management that during the Plan Quality process it was determined that the project would meet the quality standards.

B.

Analogously estimate future results.

C.

Form a quality assurance team.

D.

Check the results from the last quality management plan.

Demo: 93 questions
Total 625 questions