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ASIS PCI Professional Certified Investigator (ASIS-PCI) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 42 questions
Total 141 questions

Professional Certified Investigator (ASIS-PCI) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Examples of res gestae evidence are statements:

Options:

A.

that ate pan of a series of Informational comments that are creditable when taken as a whole

B.

that are corroborated by other evidence.

C.

to credible thud parties with no direct involvement in the outcome

D.

that are evidence pertaining to someone's state of mind

Question 2

One quality requited of an investigative finding is that the finding:

Options:

A.

does not require corroboration

B.

is based on a series of assumptions

C.

should be traceable to information garnered

D.

does not need to meet the burden of proof.

Question 3

Witnesses should be questioned in descending priority, as follows:

Options:

A.

The human resources department, persons who are not likely to be readily available at a later date, union steward, suspects, and legal counsel

B.

People who have the most pertinent information, hostile witnesses, suspects, persons who are not likely to be readily available at a later date, legal counsel, and the department manager.

C.

Persons who are not likely to be readily available at a later date, persons believed to have the most pertinent information, persons who are likely to be hostile witnesses, suspects

D.

Legal affairs, human resources department, union steward, suspects, risk management, and witnesses who have the most pertinent information

Question 4

One of the mam differences between public sector investigation and private sector investigation is:

Options:

A.

the public sector always involves a local Investigation agency, whereas the private sector does not

B.

private sector investigators are frequently required to meet a higher standard of proof than the public sector.

C.

public sector investigators are frequently required to meet a higher standard of proof than the private sector

D.

the private sector can rely on employee tips, whereas the public sector cannot

Question 5

A Professional Certified Investigator (PCI) is conducting an internal theft investigation A subject has been identified and mote people may be involved The PCI wants to use human and electronic surveillance techniques to investigate further The PCI's next step is to

Options:

A.

purchase or tent equipment that will be used

B.

conduct an initial operation to determine if further action is required.

C.

consult legal counsel to ensure that the they do not violate laws or regulations

D.

meet with local law enforcement to review the case and request permission for the operation

Question 6

Confirming legal problems, potential conflicts of Interest, and undisclosed affiliations or identities are all aspects of which type of investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud

B.

Industrial espionage

C.

Due diligence

D.

Embezzlement

Question 7

One of the best positions for the undercover operative in a business is inwhich department?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Transportation

C.

Mail room

D.

Administration

Question 8

An investigator isasked to conduct surveillance ofa local unions organizing activities. The investigator should advise the prospective client that

Options:

A.

a union representative must be notified 48 hours prior to the start of the surveillance

B.

the law requires a minimum of two undercover investigators

C.

the law prohibits surveillance of union organizing activities

D.

surveillance is legal if held in a public place

Question 9

Subsequent reports that are added to an initial investigative report are called:

Options:

A.

progress reports

B.

special reports

C.

addendum reports.

D.

interm reports

Question 10

Which of the following is considered to be incorrect procedure when seizing a computer to obtain evidence?

Options:

A.

Examining hard drive

B.

Using software 10 back up the computer files

C.

Turning the computer on

D.

Isolating power or phone lines

Question 11

"Skimming" is best described as:

Options:

A.

taking cash after it has been counted and bundled by replacing bills of large denominations with bills of lower denominations.

B.

Keeping or intercepting some of the proceeds of cash sales before any record is made of their receipt.

C.

undercharging or failing to charge an accomplice who is posing as a customer

D.

overcharging customers at the cash register and keeping the extra money.

Question 12

if criminal activity occurs within the enterprise, the Interest of the private sector may be best served by:

Options:

A.

relying solely on the public sector enterprise to handle the criminal activity.

B.

accepting restitution or taking administrative or employment action

C.

not exposing criminal activity to the media

D.

always terminating the employee involved in the criminal activity.

Question 13

Which step of the intelligence collection cycle includes activities such as determining how the intelligence can be best used?

Options:

A.

Evaluation

B.

Requirements

C.

Dissemination

D.

Integration & Analysis

Question 14

When evidence is collected, garments containing blood or other liquids should first be:

Options:

A.

tested for contamination

B.

allowed to dry naturally.

C.

Placed on clay on a flat surface.

D.

placed in a bottle.

Question 15

Basic rules surrounding evidence collection are to:

Options:

A.

get all evidence thatcan have any bearing on the case, mark It. properly wrap, package, and preserve from contamination: establish a chain of custody and show continuity between the discovery of the evidence and its subsequent presentation

B.

video record all evidence, collect the minimal amount of evidence necessary to support the facts and circumstances, mark the evidence, secure the evidence until presentation to a court of law

C.

collect any evidence relevant to the case, secure the evidence unless otherwise requested by management, establish a chain of custody, mark all evidence with "the mark" of the primary investigator

D.

secure the scene of the offense, mark all evidence, establish chain of custody, set all evidence aside in one central location for later Identification.

Question 16

What term is given to testimonial evidence presented in court?

Options:

A.

Parole

B.

Hearsay

C.

Fact witness

D.

Opinion witness

Question 17

A forensic entomologist may be called upon to determine an approximate time ot death when:

Options:

A.

drug overdose or poisoning is suspected

B.

the cause of death cannot be determined

C.

there is insect evidence in the corpse

D.

the person has been dead for several days before discovery.

Question 18

Mobile vehicle surveillance is generally the most:

Options:

A.

effectiveand practical form of surveillance

B.

difficult and vulnerable to discovery-

C.

expensive form of moving surveillance

D.

common form of surveillance in large urban settings

Question 19

Al MINIMUM which of the following digital devices should an investigation unit have at their disposal?

Options:

A.

Radio frequency (RF) blocking bag

B.

Separate digital recorder and camera

C.

Global Positioning System (GPS) trackers

D.

Personal smart phone for recordings and photographs

Question 20

When an interviewer is seeking a confession, it Is most important to:

Options:

A.

stress the importance of the matter under investigation

B.

consider the interviewee's behavioral indicators of deception

C.

help the interviewee to rationalize actions and avoid embarrassment

D.

convince the Interviewee that it is futile to avoid confessing

Question 21

Which of the following can be used to mark property that has been stolen and later recovered so its rightful owner can be identified?

Options:

A.

Cyanoacrylate fuming compound

B.

Exploding dye pack

C.

Magnetic print powder

D.

Invisible evidence marker

Question 22

The ultimate test of a good investigative report is that the report:

Options:

A.

results in a conviction

B.

is in the first person.

C.

includes a conclusion

D.

docs not cause the reader to have any questions

Question 23

A deceptive person is more likely to:

Options:

A.

qualify answers or use religion or oaths lo support statements

B.

make general, sweeping denials

C.

offer unqualified, spontaneous answers

D.

respond to questions in a rational manner and clear tone of voice

Question 24

What is the purpose of link analysis?

Options:

A.

Trace malicious software to its creator in criminal exploits

B.

Identify interconnections between people, places, and activities

C.

Track illegal money from Inception of criminal activity until it is laundered

D.

Examine suspects in an investigation to determine who committed the illegal act

Question 25

Evidence thattends to prove a point of an issue is best defined as:

Options:

A.

indirect

B.

material

C.

competent

D.

circumstantial

Question 26

Which statement best describes the value of employee hotlines in the private sector?

Options:

A.

Employee hotlines are a cost-effective means to obtain information regarding employee misconduct, which investigative Units rely upon as a valuable information resource.

B.

An employee hotline leads to many false and malicious complaints.

C.

information obtained from employee hotlines cannot be considered credible when they relate to sexual harassment incidents because of the sensitive nature of the allegations associated with these complaints.

D.

While costly to maintain, corporations view employee hotlines as an important tool to identify employee misconduct, which often cannot be detected by other means.

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an interrogation?

Options:

A.

Accusatory

B.

Extensive planning

C.

Dialogue

D.

Structure

Question 28

Primary reasons to protect investigative information include the potential for all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

damage to the careers of witnesses

B.

significant civil liability.

C.

damage to important relationships with other agencies or companies

D.

damage to the reputation of previously convicted individuals

Question 29

Anything thateffectively negates or reduces the ability of an adversary to exploit information or vulnerabilities is called:

Options:

A.

exposure

B.

risk avoidance

C.

a protection method

D.

a countermeasure

Question 30

formation considered to be indirect is:

Options:

A.

first-hand

B.

nor actionable.

C.

never admissible

D.

hearsay

Question 31

Allowing an accounts payable clerk access to the vendor master file so the clerk can add or delete names is a violation of which of the following fraud prevention practices?

Options:

A.

Offline entry controls and limits

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Signature authorities

D.

Rotation of duties

Question 32

An electronic access control record reveals that at the time or a computer theft, an employee was m the vicinity. The record would be considered

Options:

A.

entirely non- incriminating

B.

direct evidence

C.

circumstantial evidence.

D.

prima facie evidence

Question 33

Another term for an interrogation is:

Options:

A.

cognitive interview

B.

confrontational interview.

C.

behavioral analysis interview

D.

general Interview.

Question 34

Tool marks are categorized as which Type of physical evidence?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

impression

C.

Associative

D.

Identifying

Question 35

An undercover operative should "quality" each subject targeted to buy Illegal drugs to:

Options:

A.

determine how many employees are drug dealers

B.

overcome the risk of detection-

C.

determine when me dealer has possession of drugs

D.

overcome allegations of entrapment

Question 36

Which of the fallowing is an exception to the hearsay rule?

Options:

A.

When the person making the statement about what another person said made statements against self-interest

B.

When the other person's statement was overheard by two or more reputable witnesses

C.

When the other person's statement was later put into writing by whoever overheard it

D.

When the other person is unavailable for the proceeding

Question 37

Undercover investigations should only be chosen as a preventive measure when no other alternatives are available and when

Options:

A.

the situation being investigated involves a specific department

B.

resources are limited

C.

union activity is suspected

D.

the company can reasonably expect a significant return on their Investment

Question 38

in an undercover investigation, the major reason to Involve legal counsel as part of the management team is to:

Options:

A.

assist in working with a prosecutor.

B.

assist in managing personality conflict among the management team.

C.

defend the investigator should the Investigator be sued

D.

protect the investigator's work product from discovery.

Question 39

in the FBI's Computer Analysis Response Team programs, the two-pronged approach to forensic examinations consists of investigations and

Options:

A.

education

B.

training

C.

legal support

D.

laboratory support

Question 40

A subsidiary fact from which theexistence of the ultimate fact in determining whether guilt or innocence may be inferred is whichof the following kinds of evidence?

Options:

A.

Circumstantial

B.

Real

C.

Testimonial

D.

Admissible

Question 41

What is one of The three 'i's?

Options:

A.

intellect

B.

Intuition

C.

Initiative

D.

Information

Question 42

In regards to posture, a truthful person is more likely to:

Options:

A.

sit off to side Instead of directly in front of the interviewer.

B.

slouch or lean back in the chair.

C.

lean toward the interviewer when making a point.

D.

pull elbows close to the side and told his or her arms

Demo: 42 questions
Total 141 questions