It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
Which device separates networks by security domains?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.
Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?
Which components are contained within a virtual machine?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?
Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?
Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF
configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?
How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?
Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.
Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?
What is a function of MAC address learning?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?
What is the role of SNMP in the network?
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
What is a specification for SSIDS?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. The router R1 is in the process of being configured. Routers R2 and R3 are configured correctly for the new environment. Which two commands must be configured on R1 for PC1 to communicate to all PCs on the 10.10.10.0/24 network? (Choose two.)
What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?
What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)
What is the function of northbound API?
What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?
A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require
An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is a function performed by a web server?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)
Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:
• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.
• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.
Which set of configurations must be applied?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?
What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
Refer to the exhibit.
When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Refer to the exhibit.
If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
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CCNA 200-301 Dumps Full Questions - Exam Study Guide & Free 203
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